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ipn [44]
3 years ago
10

The following items appear on the balance sheet of a company with a one-year operating cycle. Identify the proper classification

of each item as follows: C if it is a current liability, L if it is a long-term liability, or N if it is not a liability. prepaid insurance bonds payable
Item Classification
1. Current portion of long-term debt.
2. Notes payable (due in 6 to 11 months).
3. Sales taxes payable.
4. Bonus payable (to be paid in 60 days)
5. Warranty liability (6 months of coverage)
6. Prepaid Insurance (6 months of coverage)
7. Notes payable (due in 120 days).
8. Salaries payable.
9. Pension liability (to be fully paid to retired employees in next 11 months)
10. Bonds payable (due in 2 years)
Business
1 answer:
postnew [5]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

  • L
  • L
  • c
  • n
  • n
  • c
  • n
  • l
  • n

I think so buh I’d advice u to make it its correct

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The Southern Corporation manufactures a single product and has the following cost structure: Variable costs per unit: Production
Blizzard [7]

Answer:

$3,500

Explanation:

Under variable costing method, product costs are calculated on variable manufacturing  costs only.

Step 1 : Determine unit Product Cost

Product Cost = Variable Manufacturing Costs

                      =  $ 35

Step 2 : Determine the units in Inventory

Units in Inventory = Opening Stock + Production - Sales

                              = 0 +  7,210 - 7,110

                              = 100 units

Step 3 : Determine Inventory value

Inventory value = Units x Cost per unit

                           = 100 units x $ 35

                           = $3,500

Conclusion :

the ending inventory of finished goods under variable costing would be: $3,500

3 0
3 years ago
Valence Electronics has 213 million shares outstanding. It expects earnings at the end of the year of $800 million. Valence pays
Dvinal [7]

Answer:

$75.12 million

Explanation:

For computation of Valence's share price first we need to find out the share price which is shown below:-

Share price = (Paid earning of Valence × Ended year of expected earning) ÷ (Equity cost of capital - Expected growth rate)

= (40% × $800 million) ÷ (9% - 7%)

= (0.4 × $800 million) ÷ (0.09 - 0.07)

= $320 million ÷ 0.02

= $16,000 million

Now, Valence's share price

= Total value ÷ Outstanding total shares

= $16,000 million ÷ 213 million

= $75.12 million

3 0
3 years ago
Decision Point: Your Final Meeting: RC Helicopter Piloting Radio controlled helicopter Your next client is Alan, who runs a high
hoa [83]

Answer:

Leave the price alone. Although it may lack some of the features that competitors’ models have, the Boss brand is well-recognized and well-respected in the market

Explanation:

You chose to lower the price to $359.That was the best choice.During the maturity stage of the product life cycle, increased competition eventually forces price cutting, and market share leadership may outweigh profit as a pricing objective, so this is a good option. However, it would take some research to determine whether the company can still make a profit at this price.

8 0
3 years ago
Parkinson Company (PC) had a beginning balance of $86,000 and an ending balance of $90,000 in itslong-term marketable securities
loris [4]

Answer:

the cash inflow from the sale of securities is $7,000

Explanation:

The computation of the cash inflow from the sale of securities is shown below:

= Opening balance + purchase marketable securities + gain on the sale of marketable securities - ending balance

= $86,000 + $10,000 + $1,000 - $90,000

= $97,000 - $90,000

= $7,000

hence, the cash inflow from the sale of securities is $7,000

8 0
3 years ago
Ric wants to invest in government securities that promise to pay $1,000 at maturity. The opportunity cost (interest rate) of hol
lutik1710 [3]

Answer: An investment that matures in five years

Explanation:

Both investments may be of equal risks, but by virtue of having different maturity dates, they will not be priced the same.

This is because the discount rate (opportunity cost) will discount the maturity value more the longer the investment is such that the present value is lower.

4 year investment

= 1,000 / (1.068)^4

= $768.63

5 year investment

= 1,000 / (1.068)^5

= $719.69

The 5 year investment will have a lower present value and will be charged lower.

4 0
3 years ago
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