Answer:
$3,500
Explanation:
Under variable costing method, product costs are calculated on variable manufacturing costs only.
Step 1 : Determine unit Product Cost
Product Cost = Variable Manufacturing Costs
= $ 35
Step 2 : Determine the units in Inventory
Units in Inventory = Opening Stock + Production - Sales
= 0 + 7,210 - 7,110
= 100 units
Step 3 : Determine Inventory value
Inventory value = Units x Cost per unit
= 100 units x $ 35
= $3,500
Conclusion :
the ending inventory of finished goods under variable costing would be: $3,500
Answer:
$75.12 million
Explanation:
For computation of Valence's share price first we need to find out the share price which is shown below:-
Share price = (Paid earning of Valence × Ended year of expected earning) ÷ (Equity cost of capital - Expected growth rate)
= (40% × $800 million) ÷ (9% - 7%)
= (0.4 × $800 million) ÷ (0.09 - 0.07)
= $320 million ÷ 0.02
= $16,000 million
Now, Valence's share price
= Total value ÷ Outstanding total shares
= $16,000 million ÷ 213 million
= $75.12 million
Answer:
Leave the price alone. Although it may lack some of the features that competitors’ models have, the Boss brand is well-recognized and well-respected in the market
Explanation:
You chose to lower the price to $359.That was the best choice.During the maturity stage of the product life cycle, increased competition eventually forces price cutting, and market share leadership may outweigh profit as a pricing objective, so this is a good option. However, it would take some research to determine whether the company can still make a profit at this price.
Answer:
the cash inflow from the sale of securities is $7,000
Explanation:
The computation of the cash inflow from the sale of securities is shown below:
= Opening balance + purchase marketable securities + gain on the sale of marketable securities - ending balance
= $86,000 + $10,000 + $1,000 - $90,000
= $97,000 - $90,000
= $7,000
hence, the cash inflow from the sale of securities is $7,000
Answer: An investment that matures in five years
Explanation:
Both investments may be of equal risks, but by virtue of having different maturity dates, they will not be priced the same.
This is because the discount rate (opportunity cost) will discount the maturity value more the longer the investment is such that the present value is lower.
4 year investment
= 1,000 / (1.068)^4
= $768.63
5 year investment
= 1,000 / (1.068)^5
= $719.69
The 5 year investment will have a lower present value and will be charged lower.