The correct answer is d) 200 lbs.
Hope that I was of help.
The force on a charged particle in a magnetic field is given by
the speed of the charged particle = 10842 m/s.
Explanation:
F= q V B sinθ
F=force=3.5 x 10⁻²N
q= charge= 8.4 x 10⁻⁴ C
B= magnetic field= 6.7 x 10⁻³ T
θ=35⁰
Thus the velocity is given by V=
V=(3.5 x 10⁻²)/[(8.4 x 10⁻⁴)(6.7 x 10⁻³)(sin35)]
V=10842 m/s
Mechanical advantage is defined as the ratio of output load to the input load. The mechanical advantage of the machine will be 0.1.
<h3>What is
mechanical advantage?</h3>
Mechanical advantage is a measure of the ratio of output force to input force in a system,
It is used to obtain the efficiency of forces in levers and pulleys. It is an effective way of amplifying the force in simple machines like levers.
The theoretical mechanical advantage is defined as the ratio of the force responsible for the useful work in the system to the applied force.
Given
applied force = 250 N
Output force = 25
Mechanical advantage = work output / work input



Hence the mechanical advantage of the machine will be 0.1
To learn more about the mechanical advantage refer to the link;
brainly.com/question/7638820
Answer:
The electromagnetic spectrum comprise a lot of waves length. Usually, different waves length are called as different lights, and a light source can emit in more than a different wave length, as the sun does, for example. The sun emit the visible light, UV light, infrared, etc.
Given:
u(initial velocity)=0
a=5.54m/s^2
v(final velocity)=2 m/s
v=u +at
Where v is the final velocity.
u is the initial velocity
a is the acceleration.
t is the time
2=0+5.54t
t=2/5.54
t=0.36 sec