Answer:
The most likely result at trial is that the landowner's claim for specific performance will be successful, and she will be awarded the entire price of contract.
Explanation:
When there isn't a statute, the buyer bears the risk of loss when property subject to a contract for sale is destroyed without fault of any party prior to the date specified for closing. Unless the contract specifies otherwise, the buyer must pay the contract price even if the property is damaged by fire.
The inn was burned down in this case after the landowner and the buyer signed a contract for the sale of the property, but before the closing date. The contract appears to be silent on the risk of loss, and no appropriate statute exists. As a result of the common law rule, the buyer bears the risk of loss. Therefore, the landowner has the right to particular execution of the contract, which implies that the entire stipulated contract price must be paid by the buyer.
Regardless of the property's drop in worth owing to the fire, the $1 million contract price must be paid by the buyer because he bears the risk of loss.
Therefore, the most likely result at trial is that the landowner's claim for specific performance will be successful, and she will be awarded the entire price of contract.
It should be noted that the inefficient allocation if resources is market failure.
<h3>What is market failure? </h3>
It should be noted that market failure simply means the inefficient distribution of goods and services.
Market failure is the the inability of a market to bring about the allocation of resources that best satisfies the wants of society.
Learn more about market failure on:
brainly.com/question/368647
Answer:
IRR 6% for Jabob
His friend will need 12 years saving cash to obtain their collegue funds.
Explanation:
We will solve for the rate being the annuity of 3 payment of 800
and the present value 2,138.41
C 800
time 3
PV 2,138.41
rate ?
To solve we can use excel, a financial calculator or trial and error
For excel we will do the following:
write the list of cash through the loan life:
-2,138.41
+800
+800
+800
then we write in the empy cell
=IRR(
select the values and press enter
This will give the IRR which is 6%
For the second assignment:
we need to solve for time:
C 3,800
time n
rate 0.06
PV $31,897
We work out the formula:
Now we solve the right side and apply logarithmic properties
-n = -11.77128325
n = 11.77
It will take 12 years to obtain their target amount
Answer:
59% - a)increase - b)decrease
Explanation:
First of all, we should say that the real exchange rate is calculated by multiplying the nominal exchange rate for the price index and then divide it by the price index of the other country. In another language, using this case as the example, the first nominal exchange rate is 50, as you need 50 rupees to buy 1 dollar. So to calculate the real exchange rate you need to multiply 50 by 100 (the price index of USA) and then divide it by 100 (the price index of India). Note that both price indexes are 100, just a coincidence for making easier the question. Result: 50.
Then we calculate the next real exchange rate: multiply 60 (the new nominal exchange rate) by 106 (the new US price index) and divide by 80 (the new India price index). This throws a result of 79,5. We see a 29,5 increase, and 29,5 represents 59% of 50 (the initial real exchange rate).
Then both questions is more common sense than the reading of the results we just calculated. For example, nominal exchange rate changed from 50 to 60, so the people in India will now have to collect 10 more rupees to buy the same dollar. Let's suppose a pair of shoes in USA costs 40 dollars. Before, Indians needed 2000 rupees to buy it. Now they will need 2400 rupees... it will be more expensive. Plus, the prices of USA had gone up 6%, which means the pair of shoes will now cost 42,4 dollars... even more expensive! As products in USA are more expensive, we can expect that India's consumption of American goods will decrease (law of demand).
With the American consumption of Indian goods happens the opposite, the goods in India became cheaper (price index has fallen), and for the Americans, the same dollars they had will buy more rupees when the exchange rate changed to 60.
Answer:
TRUE
Explanation:
Using the Gordon Growth Model, we can adequately demonstrate that the dividend and price of a share are both components of the cashflow to be considered in share valuation.
Price per share is found to be D(1) / (r - g)
where:
Do = Dividend now
D1 = Dividend in year 1
g = growth
r = required return
So we see that the market price of a share which determines the market capitalization of a company is predicted by a growth in dividends. So the benefits of holding a share will not only depend on how much the share is sold now as against how much it can be sold in the future (in order to make a gain), but also how much you can be earning until such sale occurs.
