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Leto [7]
3 years ago
14

Question 1 of 10

Mathematics
2 answers:
ki77a [65]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Acute and scalene

Step-by-step explanation:

All the three interior angles of triangle are less than 90 then it is an acute triangle.

All the sides have different length then it is Scalene triangle. In Scalene triangle, all the sides have different length and so all the angles are of different

Ann [662]3 years ago
8 0
<h3>2 Answers: D) scalene, and E) acute</h3>

Explanation:

You have the right idea. The triangle is acute since all three angles are less than 90 degrees. The triangle is also scalene because all three sides are different lengths.

For a triangle to be equilateral, the three sides must be the same length. So we can rule out choice A.

We can rule out choice B since none of the angles are larger than 90 degrees. This contradicts choice E.

We can rule out choice C because we don't have exactly two sides the same length. This contradicts choice D.

We can rule out choice F because we don't have a 90 degree angle. This contradicts choice E.

You might be interested in
Convert standard form to slope<br><br> 6x+5y=-15
siniylev [52]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Isolate Y by subtracting 6x from both sides.

2. Divide everything by 5, since 5 is the coefficient of Y

Final equation:

Y = -\frac{6}{5} x -3

Hope this helps!

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following represents the prime factortzation of 72?
rjkz [21]

Answer:

2³ x 3²

Step-by-step explanation:

The prime factorization of a number is the process of breaking down a number to a set of prime numbers that their product will give the original number:

          72

      2   x    36

      2 x 2 x 18

      2 x 2 x 2 x 9

       2 x 2  x 2 x 3 x 3

So;

  The prime factorization is 2³ x 3²

8 0
3 years ago
Solve - pv + 40 &lt; 65 for v<br> solve 7w - 3r = 15 for r
Katarina [22]

Answer:

v > -25/p

r = -5 +7/3 w

Step-by-step explanation:

- pv + 40 < 65

Subtract 40 from each side

- pv + 40-40 < 65-40

-pv < 25

Divide each side by -p  (remember to flip the inequality since we are dividing by a negative)

-pv/-p > 25/-p

v > -25/p


7w - 3r = 15

Subtract 7w from each side

7w-7w - 3r = 15-7w

-3r = 15-7w

Divide by -3

-3r/-3 = (15-7w)/-3

r = -5 +7/3 w

8 0
4 years ago
A certain large manufacturing facility produces 20,000 parts each week. The manager of the facility estimates that about 1% of t
Slav-nsk [51]

Answer:

198 is the variance for the number of defective parts made each week.      

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the following in the question:

Number of parts produced each week =  20,000

Percentage of defective parts = 1%

We have to calculate the variance for the number of defective parts made each week.

We treat defective part as a success.

P(Defective part) = 1% = 0.01

p = 0.01

Then the number defective parts follows a binomial distribution .

Formula for variance =

\sigma^2 = np(1-p) = 20000(0.01)(1-0.01) = 198

Thus, 198 is the variance for the number of defective parts made each week.

8 0
4 years ago
Determine if each statement is always, sometimes, or never true.
Allushta [10]
1.always
2.always
3.never
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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