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vekshin1
3 years ago
6

What is the decay factor of the exponential function

Mathematics
2 answers:
Maru [420]3 years ago
7 0
Answer:

2/3

Step by step:
worty [1.4K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

a.)1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

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What would the sender too 1 . 10^3 be
olga_2 [115]
The answer is b.........
5 0
3 years ago
Please help!!<br> Write a matrix representing the system of equations
frozen [14]

Answer:

(4, -1, 3)

Step-by-step explanation:

We have the system of equations:

\left\{        \begin{array}{ll}            x+2y+z =5 \\    2x-y+2z=15\\3x+y-z=8        \end{array}    \right.

We can convert this to a matrix. In order to convert a triple system of equations to matrix, we can use the following format:

\begin{bmatrix}x_1& y_1& z_1&c_1\\x_2 & y_2 & z_2&c_2\\x_3&y_2&z_3&c_3 \end{bmatrix}

Importantly, make sure the coefficients of each variable align vertically, and that each equation aligns horizontally.

In order to solve this matrix and the system, we will have to convert this to the reduced row-echelon form, namely:

\begin{bmatrix}1 & 0& 0&x\\0 & 1 & 0&y\\0&0&1&z \end{bmatrix}

Where the (x, y, z) is our solution set.

Reducing:

With our system, we will have the following matrix:

\begin{bmatrix}1 & 2& 1&5\\2 & -1 & 2&15\\3&1&-1&8 \end{bmatrix}

What we should begin by doing is too see how we can change each row to the reduced-form.

Notice that R₁ and R₂ are rather similar. In fact, we can cancel out the 1s in R₂. To do so, we can add R₂ to -2(R₁). This gives us:

\begin{bmatrix}1 & 2& 1&5\\2+(-2) & -1+(-4) & 2+(-2)&15+(-10) \\3&1&-1&8 \end{bmatrix}\\\Rightarrow\begin{bmatrix}1 & 2& 1&5\\0 & -5 & 0&5 \\3&1&-1&8 \end{bmatrix}

Now, we can multiply R₂ by -1/5. This yields:

\begin{bmatrix}1 & 2& 1&5\\ -\frac{1}{5}(0) & -\frac{1}{5}(-5) & -\frac{1}{5}(0)& -\frac{1}{5}(5) \\3&1&-1&8 \end{bmatrix}\\\Rightarrow\begin{bmatrix}1 & 2& 1&5\\ 0 & 1 & 0& -1 \\3&1&-1&8 \end{bmatrix}

From here, we can eliminate the 3 in R₃ by adding it to -3(R₁). This yields:

\begin{bmatrix}1 & 2& 1&5\\ 0 & 1 & 0& -1 \\3+(-3)&1+(-6)&-1+(-3)&8+(-15) \end{bmatrix}\\\Rightarrow\begin{bmatrix}1 & 2& 1&5\\ 0 & 1 & 0& -1 \\0&-5&-4&-7 \end{bmatrix}

We can eliminate the -5 in R₃ by adding 5(R₂). This yields:

\begin{bmatrix}1 & 2& 1&5\\ 0 & 1 & 0& -1 \\0+(0)&-5+(5)&-4+(0)&-7+(-5) \end{bmatrix}\\\Rightarrow\begin{bmatrix}1 & 2& 1&5\\ 0 & 1 & 0& -1 \\0&0&-4&-12 \end{bmatrix}

We can now reduce R₃ by multiply it by -1/4:

\begin{bmatrix}1 & 2& 1&5\\ 0 & 1 & 0& -1 \\ -\frac{1}{4}(0)&-\frac{1}{4}(0)&-\frac{1}{4}(-4)&-\frac{1}{4}(-12) \end{bmatrix}\\\Rightarrow\begin{bmatrix}1 & 2& 1&5\\ 0 & 1 & 0& -1 \\0&0&1&3 \end{bmatrix}

Finally, we just have to reduce R₁. Let's eliminate the 2 first. We can do that by adding -2(R₂). So:

\begin{bmatrix}1+(0) & 2+(-2)& 1+(0)&5+(-(-2))\\ 0 & 1 & 0& -1 \\0&0&1&3 \end{bmatrix}\\\Rightarrow\begin{bmatrix}1 & 0& 1&7\\ 0 & 1 & 0& -1 \\0&0&1&3 \end{bmatrix}

And finally, we can eliminate the second 1 by adding -(R₃):

\begin{bmatrix}1 +(0)& 0+(0)& 1+(-1)&7+(-3)\\ 0 & 1 & 0& -1 \\0&0&1&3 \end{bmatrix}\\\Rightarrow\begin{bmatrix}1 & 0& 0&4\\ 0 & 1 & 0& -1 \\0&0&1&3 \end{bmatrix}

Therefore, our solution set is (4, -1, 3)

And we're done!

3 0
3 years ago
Creating a password with two letters followed by two one-digit numbers.
klemol [59]

Answer:

"HI87"

wish that is helpful:)

7 0
3 years ago
Please answer this question please ​
Bas_tet [7]
<h3>Answer:</h3><h3 /><h3>Amount = Rs 13891.50</h3><h3>Compound interest = Rs 1891.50</h3>

Step-by-step explanation:

C = Amount (A) - Principal (P)

Where

C is the compound interest

To find the amount we use the formula

A = P ({1 +  \frac{r}{100} })^{n}

where

P is the principal

r is the rate

n is the period / time

From the question

P = Rs 12, 000

r = 5%

n = 3 years

Substitute the values into the above formula

That's

A = 12000 ({1 +  \frac{5}{100} })^{3}  \\ A = 12000(1 + 0.05)^{3}  \\ A = 12000 ({1.05})^{3}

We have the answer as

<h3>Amount = Rs 13891.50</h3>

Compound interest = 13891.50 - 12000

<h3>Compound interest = Rs 1891.50</h3>

Hope this helps you

8 0
4 years ago
I need help solving this. Help!!!!!
Fed [463]

Answer:

48

Step-by-step explanation:

MPQ + QPN = MPN

9x-6 + 5x+7 = 85

Combine like terms

14x+1 = 85

Subtract 1 from each side

14x+1-1 = 85-1

14x = 84

Divide by 14

14x/14 = 84/4

x=6

We want MPQ

MPW = 9x-6 = 9*6 -6 = 54-6 =48

3 0
3 years ago
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