Answer:
Instructions are below.
Explanation:
<u>We were provided with the activity rates. To calculate the total cost, first, we need to allocate overhead to both product lines:</u>
<u></u>
Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base
Product K425:
Allocated MOH= (6*80) + (4*100) + (50*1) + (90*1) + (14*1) + (9*80)
Allocated MOH= $1,754
Product M67:
Allocated MOH= (6*500) + (4*1,500) + (50*4) + (90*4) + (14*10) + (9*500)
Allocated MOH= $14,200
<u>Now, we can calculate the unitary cost:</u>
Product K425:
Unitary cost= 13 + 5.6 + (1,754/200)
Unitary cost= $27.37
Product M67:
Unitary cost= 56 + 3.5 + (14,200/2,000)
Unitary cost= $66.6
Answer:
PART-1
How should each instrument be changed if the Fed wishes to decrease the money supply?
The Fed would deportment open-market sales, increase the discount rate, and raise interest paid on reserves.
PART-2)
Will the change affect the monetary base and/or the money multiplier?
The money multiplier refers to the capacity of money that financial institute like banks produce with each dollar of funds. Money base is exaggerated by the open-market processes and discount rate. Any alteration in interest expenditures on reserves modifies the money multiplier.
Answer: B
Explanation: There is an unlimited amount of wants but limited amount of resources
The inventory level will be used by an inventory
manager to regulate the optimal time for manufacturing, if they are handling
a manufacturer's warehouse, or to demand more if the product is being stored as
stock at a store.
To solve this:
Get first the Current Assets this solved by multiplying the
current liabilities to the current ratio.
CA = $500 (1.5) = $750
Then get the inventory level by multiplying the current
asset to the product of the current liabilities and quick ratio.
Inventory level = $750 (500 x 1.1) = $412,500
