Answer:
A.)
Step-by-step explanation:
Translations are as follows: Up is + on Y axis, down is - on Y axis. Right is + on X axis and left is - on X axis.
The function f(x) = x+8 is translated to (0,8) since their is no number in a bracket with x (example: f(x)= (x-2)+5 would be (2,5) since the X axis is taken as the opposite sign).
g(x) = x-3 translates to (0,-3) which is 11 units down from f(x)
Answer:
<em>$4.75</em>
Step-by-step explanation:
(had) 8.25 + (deposited) 2.25 = (total) 10.50
10.50 - (withdrew) 5.75 = (total left) 4.75
4 the anwser is 3x6y........ ..
Hello there. ;D
How do you spell 4.10 as a word form
Answer: four and ten hundredths.<span>
</span>
The preferred gig is the first one since its today's worth is greater than the today's value of the second gig
What is the today's worth of $5000 each year?
The worth of the second gig, which pays $5000 every year for the next 6 years in today's dollar is the present value of all the six annual cash flows discounted using the present value formula of an ordinary annuity as shown below:
PV=PMT*(1-(1+r)^-N/r
PV=present value of annual payments for 6 years=unknown
PMT=annual payment=$5000
r=required return=discount rate=8%
N=number of annual cash flows=6
PV=$5000*(1-(1+8%)^-6/8%
PV=$5000*(1-(1.08)^-6/0.08
PV=$5000*(1-0.630169626883105)/0.08
PV=$5000*0.369830373116895
/0.08
PV=$23,114.40
The fact that the present value of the second option which pays $5000 annually is lesser than the amount receivable immediately, which is $25,000, hence, the first gig is preferred
Find out more about ordinary annuity on:brainly.com/question/13369387
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