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jarptica [38.1K]
3 years ago
12

Can it perform algebra

Mathematics
1 answer:
Ronch [10]3 years ago
6 0
Can what perform algebra?
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Shirts are on sale 20% off! The original price of the shirt was $28.50. How
loris [4]

Answer: im not sure

Step-by-step explanation:

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6cos(20πt-π)+6√3cos(20πt-π\2)
juin [17]

Answer:

<u>Answer</u><u> </u><u>is</u><u> </u><u>-</u><u>6</u><u>t</u>

Step-by-step explanation:

{ \tt{ = (6 \cos(20\pi t)  \cos(\pi)  +  6\sin(20\pi t) \sin(\pi) ) + 6 \sqrt{3} ( \cos(20\pi t)  \cos( \frac{\pi}{2} )  +  \sin(20\pi t)   \sin( \frac{\pi}{2} )) }} \\  = { \tt{ (- 6t + 0) + (0 + 0)}} \\  = { \tt{ - 6t}}

Note that π is 180°

5 0
3 years ago
After the party, 3 1⁄4 pecan pies remained. The next day, Edward's family ate 1 1⁄4 of a pie. How many pecan pies were left?
vlabodo [156]

Answer:

2

Step-by-step explanation:

Because 3-1 is 2 and 1/4-1/4=0

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3 years ago
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An apartment complex on Ferenginar with 250 units currently has 223 occupants. The current rent for a unit is 892 slips of Gold-
Triss [41]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given data

Total units = 250

Current occupants = 223

Rent per unit = 892 slips of Gold-Pressed latinum

Current rent = 892 x 223 =198,916 slips of Gold-Pressed latinum

After increase in the rent, then the rent function becomes

Let us conside 'y' is increased in amount of rent

Then occupants left will be [223 - y]

Rent = [892 + 2y][223 - y] = R[y]

To maximize rent =

\frac{dR}{dy}=0\\=2(223-y)-(892+2y)=0\\=446-2y-892-2y=0\\=-446-4y=0\\y=\frac{-446}{4}=-111.5

Since 'y' comes in negative, the owner must decrease his rent to maximixe profit.

Since there are only 250 units available;

y=-250+223=-27\\\\maximum \,profit =[892+2(-27)][223+27]\\=838 * 250\\=838\,for\,250\,units

Optimal rent - 838 slips of Gold-Pressed latinum

8 0
3 years ago
Consider the limit of rational function p(x)l q(x)
Helga [31]

#1

\\ \sf\bull\dashrightarrow {\displaystyle{\lim_{x\to c}}}\dfrac{p(x)}{q(x)}=\dfrac{0}{1}=0

  • The limit tends to 0
  • Hence c=0

\\ \sf\bull\dashrightarrow {\displaystyle{\lim_{x\to c}}}\dfrac{p(x)}{q(x)}=\dfrac{1}{1}=1

  • Here limit tends to 1
  • Hence c=1

\\ \sf\bull\dashrightarrow {\displaystyle{\lim_{x\to 0}}}\dfrac{p(x)}{q(x)}=\dfrac{1}{0}=\infty

  • Here x tends to infty.
  • c=infty

For the fourth one limit also tends to zero

8 0
3 years ago
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