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Zielflug [23.3K]
3 years ago
14

If 4 notebooks and 3 packages of pens cost $7.43 and

Mathematics
1 answer:
SashulF [63]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

i believe its one of these!

A. $0.89 B.$0.79 C. $1.29

Step-by-step explanation:

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Use the graph to state the solution for the system. (In other words, what is the solution for the system?)
timurjin [86]
(2,1) is the solution because its where they both intersect..
3 0
2 years ago
Is figure B a scaled copy of figure A
artcher [175]

No

We know scale factor(k)=y/x

Calculate units as 1 and find k

For left side

\\ \sf\longmapsto k=\dfrac{5}{3}

  • For base

\\ \sf\longmapsto k=\dfrac{4}{4}=1

Hence its not a copy

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Convert 150 meters per second into miles per day
statuscvo [17]
 just divide it is simple bruh
3 0
3 years ago
For each given p, let ???? have a binomial distribution with parameters p and ????. Suppose that ???? is itself binomially distr
pshichka [43]

Answer:

See the proof below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."

Solution to the problem

For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables X_i with the following distribution:

X_i Bin (1,p) = Be(p) bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:

Z = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i

From the info given we know that N \sim Bin (M,q)

We need to proof that Z \sim Bin (M, pq) by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:

E(Z) = Mpq

Var (Z) = Mpq(1-pq)

The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

E(Z) = E(N) E(X) = Mq (p)= Mpq

And for the variance of Z we can do this:

Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2

Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2

And if we take common factor Mpq we got:

Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]

And as we can see then we can conclude that   Z \sim Bin (M, pq)

8 0
3 years ago
4(2-4x)-3x=65 Whats the answer and how did you solve it?
IRINA_888 [86]

Answer:

x= -3

Step-by-step explanation:

Distribute 4(2-4x) which leaves you with 8-16x-3x=65

combine the like terms which leaves you with 8-19x=65

subtract 8 from both sides 8-19x-8=65-8 which leaves you with -19x=57

lastly divide -19 from both sides which leaves you with x= -3

3 0
3 years ago
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