5(24+4) Also 20(6+1)...................
The mean is like the average. you would add up all the numbers and divide by the amount of numbers there are. in this case, add them all up and divide by 6 because there are 6 different numbers. this will give you your answer
33/84
if you divide both top and bottom by 3 you will get your simplified answer:
11/28
Hi there
The formula is
A=p (1+r/k)^kt
A future value 3000
P present value 100
R interest rate 0.02
K compounded monthly 12
T time?
We need to solve for t
T=[log (A/p)÷log (1+r/k)]÷k
T=(log(3,000÷100)÷log(1+0.02÷12))÷12
T=170.202 years
So it's a
Hope it helps
No
The first fraction is under 1 whole while the second fraction is over 1 whole.
40/48 and 1 14/42 is what this is equal to.
May I have brainliest please? :)
