The answer is 1
thank me later
Because the probability is uniform (equally likely) between 20 and 100 pounds, the probability distribution is uniform between 80 and 100 pounds, with the value 1/(100-20) = 1/80 chocolates/pound.
Let x = random variable that represents pounds of chocolate consumed.
Therefore
P(x < 60) = (60 - 20)*(1/80) = 1/2.
Answer: The probability is 1/2.
Answer:
-139
Step-by-step explanation:
Evaluate 1/4 (4 x^3 - 2 y - 2 z^3) y^2 - 16 x^2 where x = 2, y = -5 and z = 3:
(4 x^3 - 2 y - 2 z^3)/4 y^2 - 16 x^2 = (4×2^3 - -5×2 - 2×3^3)/4×(-5)^2 - 16×2^2
(4×2^3 - 2 (-5) - 2×3^3)/4×(-5)^2 = ((4×2^3 - 2 (-5) - 2×3^3) (-5)^2)/4:
((4×2^3 - 2 (-5) - 2×3^3) (-5)^2)/4 - 16×2^2
(-5)^2 = 25:
((4×2^3 - 2 (-5) - 2×3^3) 25)/4 - 16×2^2
2^3 = 2×2^2:
((4×2×2^2 - 2 (-5) - 2×3^3) 25)/4 - 16×2^2
2^2 = 4:
((4×2×4 - 2 (-5) - 2×3^3) 25)/4 - 16×2^2
2×4 = 8:
((4×8 - 2 (-5) - 2×3^3) 25)/4 - 16×2^2
3^3 = 3×3^2:
((4×8 - 2 (-5) - 23×3^2) 25)/4 - 16×2^2
3^2 = 9:
((4×8 - 2 (-5) - 2×3×9) 25)/4 - 16×2^2
3×9 = 27:
((4×8 - 2 (-5) - 227) 25)/4 - 16×2^2
4×8 = 32:
((32 - 2 (-5) - 2×27) 25)/4 - 16×2^2
-2 (-5) = 10:
((32 + 10 - 2×27) 25)/4 - 16×2^2
-2×27 = -54:
((32 + 10 + -54) 25)/4 - 16×2^2
| 3 | 2
+ | 1 | 0
| 4 | 2:
(42 - 54 25)/4 - 16×2^2
42 - 54 = -(54 - 42):
(-(54 - 42) 25)/4 - 16×2^2
| 5 | 4
- | 4 | 2
| 1 | 2:
(-12×25)/4 - 16×2^2
(-12)/4 = (4 (-3))/4 = -3:
-3×25 - 16×2^2
2^2 = 4:
-3×25 - 164
-3×25 = -75:
-75 - 16×4
-16×4 = -64:
-64 - 75
-75 - 64 = -(75 + 64):
-(75 + 64)
| 7 | 5
+ | 6 | 4
1 | 3 | 9:
Answer: -139
I think that the answer is c
X/3=1351/7
cross multiply
7x=4053
divide by seven on both sides
x=579
