Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Ok so you are given the values of the slope-intercept form with m being the slope and b being the y-intercept. So since b is equal to -1 you want to plot a point at (0, -1) since that is the y-intercept (when x = 0). The next thing you want to do is look at the slope, which is essentially saying each time x increases by 5 the y-value decreases by 4 or in other words rise/run which is negative which is why you're going down. So from the point (0, -1) go forward 5 units and go down 4 units which should lead you to (5, -5) and the third point you can plot is by going backwards instead of forwards. So instead of every time x increases by 5 y decreases by 4 you're going to do the inverse. Every time x decreases by 5, y is going to increase by 4. So by doing this from the y-intercept (0, -1) you should go backwards 5 units and up 4 units which should lead you to (-5, 3). And then now just draw a line that goes through all those three points. Hope that helps :)
4^3 is 64 and 3^4 is 81. Therefore the answer to the circled question is -17.
Answer:it is no solution because the two lines don’t touch which means you can’t have points.
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
First choice:
![\large\boxed{\large\boxed{5/19}}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Clarge%5Cboxed%7B%5Clarge%5Cboxed%7B5%2F19%7D%7D)
Explanation:
<em>The probability that the first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card</em> is calculated as the product of both probabilities, taking into account the fact that the second time the number of cards in the hat has changed.
In spite of it is said that the cards are drawn at once, since it is stated a specific order for the cards (first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card) you can model the procedure as if the cards were drawn consecutively, instead of at once.
<u>1. Probability that the first is a man's card</u>
- Number of cards in the hat = 20 (the 20 business card)
- Number of man's card in the hat: 10
- Probability = favorable oucomes / possible outcomes = 10/20 = 1/2.
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<u>2. Probability that the second is a woman's card</u>
- Number of cards in the hat = 19 (there is one less card in the hat)
- Number of wonan's card in the hat: 10
- Probability = favorable oucomes / possible outcomes = 10/19.
<u>3. Probability that the first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card</u>
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That is the first choice.
Answer: C
Step-by-step explanation: A = 10 for one person. B = 7.5 for one person. C = 6.67 for one person. D = 8.75 for one person. E = 10 for one person.
Out of all of these, C is the cheapest.