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cestrela7 [59]
3 years ago
12

Please help me,thank you

Mathematics
1 answer:
Blababa [14]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:  Well

Step-by-step explanation:

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Lucia has 10 dimes and nickels worth a total of $0.60. Use the graph to find the number of dimes and nickels that Lucia has.
Reil [10]
The system has one solution, so it is consistent independent. The graphs intersect at the point (2, 8), which can be checked algebraically. Complete a table of values for each line.

The point (2, 8) is the solution to the system of equations. Since (2, 8) is the solution to the system of equations, Lucia has 2 dimes and 8 nickels. 

hope it helps :) feel free to ask anymore questions 

5 0
3 years ago
What is the value of the expression? −34+(110÷25)
AVprozaik [17]
First, since you are using the order of operations (PEMDAS), you would start in the parenthesis. 
<span>-34 + (110 ÷ 25)
-34 + 4.4

Now, you just add the two numbers. 
</span>-34 + 4.4 = -29.6

-34 + (110 ÷ 25) = -29.6

I hope this helps!
4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Each day, Robin commutes to work by bike with probability 0.4 and by walking with probability 0.6. When biking to work injuries
kvasek [131]

Answer:

64.65% probability of at least one injury commuting to work in the next 20 years

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}&#10;

In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

\mu is the mean in the given interval.

Each day:

Bikes to work with probability 0.4.

If he bikes to work, 0.1 injuries per year.

Walks to work with probability 0.6.

If he walks to work, 0.02 injuries per year.

20 years.

So

\mu = 20*(0.4*0.1 + 0.6*0.02) = 1.04

Either he suffers no injuries, or he suffer at least one injury. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

P(X = 0) + P(X \geq 1) = 1

We want P(X \geq 1). Then

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)

In which

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}&#10;

P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-1.04}*1.04^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.3535&#10;

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.3535 = 0.6465

64.65% probability of at least one injury commuting to work in the next 20 years

3 0
3 years ago
BRAINLIEST FOR CORRECT ANSWER!!!
hjlf

Answer:  Since the y intercept is (0, 4), b = 4 and the slope, m, is given as 2/3.

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How do I find two consecutive integers whose sum is 234
Verizon [17]
Divide 234 by 2
=117
Then just add and subtract one.
116 and 118 is the answer ( both numbers )
5 0
4 years ago
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