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dybincka [34]
3 years ago
11

In most acceptance sampling plans, when a lot is rejected, the entire lot is inspected and all defective items are replaced. Whe

n using this technique the AOQ: worsens (AOQ becomes a larger fraction). improves (AOQ becomes a smaller fraction). is not affected, but the AQL is improved. is not affected. falls to zero.
Mathematics
1 answer:
photoshop1234 [79]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

When using this technique, the AOQ:

improves (AOQ becomes a smaller fraction).

Step-by-step explanation:

AOQ simply means Average Outgoing Quality, which improves with inspection.  It is a part of an organization's Acceptance Sampling Plan, usually designed to meet product quality and risk level targets.  The plan draws samples from a population of items.  Then it tests the samples.  It only accepts the entire population if the sample is considered good enough.  It also rejects the population when the sample is poor enough.  In the plan, information about sample size and critical acceptance or rejection numbers are clearly indicated.  Acceptance sampling is common in most business environments because it has been found to be more economical than doing 100% inspection of incoming production input and output.

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18/40 = 9/20 =

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3 0
2 years ago
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Explain why each of the following integrals is improper. (a) 4 x x − 3 dx 3 Since the integral has an infinite interval of integ
erma4kov [3.2K]

Answer:

a

   Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

b

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c

  Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

d

     Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering  a

          \int\limits^4_3 {\frac{x}{x- 3} } \, dx

Looking at this we that at x = 3   this  integral will be  infinitely discontinuous

Considering  b    

        \int\limits^{\infty}_0 {\frac{1}{1 + x^3} } \, dx

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between 0 \ and  \  \infty which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is  a Type 1 improper integral

Considering  c

       \int\limits^{\infty}_{- \infty} {x^2 e^{-x^2}} \, dx

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between -\infty \ and  \  \infty which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is  a Type 1 improper integral

Considering  d

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7 0
3 years ago
If 23 people shake each others hands once how many hands are shook in all
AURORKA [14]
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A quick way to do this   is  23*22 / 2   =   253
7 0
2 years ago
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andre [41]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
What is the rule for 5,10,20,40,80
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The rule is that after the first term, every term after that is made out of
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7 0
3 years ago
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