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Galina-37 [17]
2 years ago
15

This ten frame show 5+8 draw to make ten then write the new fact

Mathematics
1 answer:
Butoxors [25]2 years ago
7 0
Draw one ten, (If you have to draw ones, draw 3 of those) and the new fact is 10 + 3. (That equals 13, if you need that.)
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How do you find inverses
MrMuchimi

How To Find Inverses:

1. First, replace f(x) with y . ...

2. Replace every x with a y and replace every y with an x .

3. Solve the equation from Step 2 for y . ...

4. Replace y with f−1(x) f − 1 ( x ) . ...

5. Verify your work by checking that (f∘f−1)(x)=x ( f ∘ f − 1 ) ( x ) = x and (f−1∘f)(x)=x ( f − 1 ∘ f ) ( x ) = x are both true.

5 0
3 years ago
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Suppose that f: R --> R is a continuous function such that f(x +y) = f(x)+ f(y) for all x, yER Prove that there exists KeR su
Pachacha [2.7K]
<h2>Answer with explanation:</h2>

It is given that:

f: R → R is a continuous function such that:

f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)------(1)  ∀  x,y ∈ R

Now, let us assume f(1)=k

Also,

  • f(0)=0

(  Since,

f(0)=f(0+0)

i.e.

f(0)=f(0)+f(0)

By using property (1)

Also,

f(0)=2f(0)

i.e.

2f(0)-f(0)=0

i.e.

f(0)=0  )

Also,

  • f(2)=f(1+1)

i.e.

f(2)=f(1)+f(1)         ( By using property (1) )

i.e.

f(2)=2f(1)

i.e.

f(2)=2k

  • Similarly for any m ∈ N

f(m)=f(1+1+1+...+1)

i.e.

f(m)=f(1)+f(1)+f(1)+.......+f(1) (m times)

i.e.

f(m)=mf(1)

i.e.

f(m)=mk

Now,

f(1)=f(\dfrac{1}{n}+\dfrac{1}{n}+.......+\dfrac{1}{n})=f(\dfrac{1}{n})+f(\dfrac{1}{n})+....+f(\dfrac{1}{n})\\\\\\i.e.\\\\\\f(\dfrac{1}{n}+\dfrac{1}{n}+.......+\dfrac{1}{n})=nf(\dfrac{1}{n})=f(1)=k\\\\\\i.e.\\\\\\f(\dfrac{1}{n})=k\cdot \dfrac{1}{n}

Also,

  • when x∈ Q

i.e.  x=\dfrac{p}{q}

Then,

f(\dfrac{p}{q})=f(\dfrac{1}{q})+f(\dfrac{1}{q})+.....+f(\dfrac{1}{q})=pf(\dfrac{1}{q})\\\\i.e.\\\\f(\dfrac{p}{q})=p\dfrac{k}{q}\\\\i.e.\\\\f(\dfrac{p}{q})=k\dfrac{p}{q}\\\\i.e.\\\\f(x)=kx\ for\ all\ x\ belongs\ to\ Q

(

Now, as we know that:

Q is dense in R.

so Э x∈ Q' such that Э a seq belonging to Q such that:

\to x )

Now, we know that: Q'=R

This means that:

Э α ∈ R

such that Э sequence a_n such that:

a_n\ belongs\ to\ Q

and

a_n\to \alpha

f(a_n)=ka_n

( since a_n belongs to Q )

Let f is continuous at x=α

This means that:

f(a_n)\to f(\alpha)\\\\i.e.\\\\k\cdot a_n\to f(\alpha)\\\\Also\\\\k\cdot a_n\to k\alpha

This means that:

f(\alpha)=k\alpha

                       This means that:

                    f(x)=kx for every x∈ R

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Answer:

(-38) / (-8)

equals 4.75

a negative divided by a negative is always a positive

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

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This is the correct answer. Not satisfied? Check out this answer expert verified answer of the same question but with a step-by-step explanation. This answer is just a simple version of rocioo's correct answer.

Expert Verified Answer (of this same question but with a step-by-step explanation):

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D.630

Step-by-step explanation:

i did the math and got that

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