Answer and Explanation:
A due on sale clause is simply a stipulation in the mortagage agreement that the
"borrower if he wants to sell the property to some other person, first of all he (borrower) shall repay the entire outstanding mortagage amount and then only it is possible to sell the property which is secured under Mortagage agreement.
Hence in essence, the borrower must repay before selling it to some other person which will result in paying the sale proceeds of house to the lender first and the Borrower again has to take loan sometimes from the same lender.
Hence it is imperative that the mortagage obligation cannot be transferred to any other person. That is any subsequent buyer cannot ASSUME the mortagage. Therefore due on sale
Clause prevents assuming of mortagages.
Answer:
Explanation:
Interest Factors
<u>Periods 6% 7% 8% 9% 10% 11
%</u>
1 1.0600 1.0700 1.0800 1.0900 1.1000 1.1100
2 1.1236 1.1449 1.1664 1.1881 1.2100 1.2321
3 1.1910 1.2250 1.2597 1.2950 1.3310 1.3676
4 1.2625 1.3108 1.3605 1.4116 1.4641 1.5181
1)
Future value paying simple interest = Principal + [( principal * interest) * investment period]
Future value paying simple interest = $2,000 + [ ( $2,000 * 9%) * 3]
Future value paying simple interest = $2,000 + 540
Future value paying simple interest = $2,540
2)
Future value paying compound interest = Present value * ( 1 + interest)n
Future value paying compound interest = $2,000 * ( 1 + 0.09)3
Future value paying compound interest = $2,000 * 1.295029
Future value paying compound interest = $2,590.058
3)
Difference = $2,590.058 - 2,540
Difference = $50.058
Answer:
a) The expected return of equally weighed portfolio is 14.23%
b) The expected return of equally weighed portfolio is 16.45%, hence Variance = 1.596457%
Explanation:
See workings of a and b attached in a form of spreadsheet.
The answer is <span>convergent adaptation
</span><span>convergent adaptation refers to a situation when individuals from different lineages develop a similar feature for the purpose of survival. For the most part, this phenomenon is caused ecause both individuals are also exposed to similar external stimulus
</span>
Answer:
The correct answer is: an expansionary gap; decrease the money supply.
Explanation:
An expansionary gap is when genuine output surpasses potential output. At the end of the day, the economy is incidentally working over its long-run potential as estimated by real GDP.
