Is 40/48 and 56/42 proportional
2 answers:
No
The first fraction is under 1 whole while the second fraction is over 1 whole.
40/48 and 1 14/42 is what this is equal to.
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Answer:
No
Step-by-step explanation:
the two fractions go down to
40/48= 5/6
56/42= 8/7
So, No
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