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algol [13]
3 years ago
15

Is 40/48 and 56/42 proportional

Mathematics
2 answers:
Lunna [17]3 years ago
3 0

No

The first fraction is under 1 whole while the second fraction is over 1 whole.

40/48 and 1  14/42 is what this is equal to.

May I have brainliest please? :)

prohojiy [21]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

No

Step-by-step explanation:

the two fractions go down to

40/48= 5/6

56/42= 8/7

So, No

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Find the slope of the line that passes through the points (10,8) and (4,12)​
JulsSmile [24]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If u(x)= x^5-x^4+x^2 and v(x)= -x^2, which expression is equivalent to (u/v)(x)? Ox^3-x^2 O -x^3+x^2 O-x^3+x^2-1 Ox^3-x^2+1​
djverab [1.8K]

Answer:

  • C. -x^3 + x^2 - 1

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Given</u>

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<u>(u/v)(x) = </u>

  • (x^5 - x^4 + x^2) /(- x^2) =
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Correct option is C

3 0
3 years ago
What is the value of (f – g)(144)?
NikAS [45]
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5 0
4 years ago
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