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algol [13]
3 years ago
15

Is 40/48 and 56/42 proportional

Mathematics
2 answers:
Lunna [17]3 years ago
3 0

No

The first fraction is under 1 whole while the second fraction is over 1 whole.

40/48 and 1  14/42 is what this is equal to.

May I have brainliest please? :)

prohojiy [21]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

No

Step-by-step explanation:

the two fractions go down to

40/48= 5/6

56/42= 8/7

So, No

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eimsori [14]
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Firstly, factor out i: i\sqrt{50}

Next, apply the product rule of radicals here as such:

i\sqrt{50}=i\sqrt{10\times 5}=i\sqrt{5\times 2\times 5}=5i\sqrt{2}

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8 0
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photoshop1234 [79]
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HELP!! 4 questions !!! easy points!! 25 points!! please answer quick!
Afina-wow [57]

Step-by-step explanation:

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arsen [322]

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Answer:

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