Is 40/48 and 56/42 proportional

Mathematics

2 answers:

Lunna [17]2 years ago

3 0

The first fraction is under 1 whole while the second fraction is over 1 whole.

40/48 and 1 14/42 is what this is equal to.

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prohojiy [21]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

the two fractions go down to

40/48= 5/6

56/42= 8/7

So, No

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