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Phantasy [73]
3 years ago
5

NEED HELP ASAP! Will give brainliest!

Mathematics
1 answer:
AlladinOne [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:A B and D

Step-by-step explanation:

USA TEST PREP.

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Let f(x)=3x-8 and g(x)=x^2+4. <br> Find f(g(-2)).
9966 [12]

Answer:

  • 16

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Given:</u>

  • f(x) =3x - 8 and g(x) = x² + 4
  • f(g(- 2)) = ?

<u>First find g(- 2):</u>

  • g(- 2) = (-2)² + 4 = 4 + 4 = 8

<u>Find f(8):</u>

  • f(8) = 3*8 - 8 = 24 - 8 = 16
8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The average number of annual trips per family to amusement parks in the UnitedStates is Poisson distributed, with a mean of 0.6
IrinaK [193]

Answer:

a) 0.5488 = 54.88% probability that the family did not make a trip to an amusement park last year.

b) 0.3293 = 32.93% probability that the family took exactly one trip to an amusement park last year.

c) 0.1219 = 12.19% probability that the family took two or more trips to amusement parks last year.

d) 0.8913 = 89.13% probability that the family took three or fewer trips to amusement parks over a three-year period.

e) 0.1912 = 19.12% probability that the family took exactly four trips to amusement parks during a six-year period.

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}

In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

\mu is the mean in the given interval.

Poisson distributed, with a mean of 0.6 trips per year

This means that \mu = 0.6n, in which n is the number of years.

a.The family did not make a trip to an amusement park last year.

This is P(X = 0) when n = 1, so \mu = 0.6.

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}

P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-0.6}*(0.6)^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.5488

0.5488 = 54.88% probability that the family did not make a trip to an amusement park last year.

b.The family took exactly one trip to an amusement park last year.

This is P(X = 1) when n = 1, so \mu = 0.6.

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}

P(X = 1) = \frac{e^{-0.6}*(0.6)^{1}}{(1)!} = 0.3293

0.3293 = 32.93% probability that the family took exactly one trip to an amusement park last year.

c.The family took two or more trips to amusement parks last year.

Either the family took less than two trips, or it took two or more trips. So

P(X < 2) + P(X \geq 2) = 1

We want

P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2)

In which

P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.5488 + 0.3293 = 0.8781

P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - 0.8781 = 0.1219

0.1219 = 12.19% probability that the family took two or more trips to amusement parks last year.

d.The family took three or fewer trips to amusement parks over a three-year period.

Three years, so \mu = 0.6(3) = 1.8.

This is

P(X \leq 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3)

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}

P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-1.8}*(1.8)^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.1653

P(X = 1) = \frac{e^{-1.8}*(1.8)^{1}}{(1)!} = 0.2975

P(X = 2) = \frac{e^{-1.8}*(1.8)^{2}}{(2)!} = 0.2678

P(X = 3) = \frac{e^{-1.8}*(1.8)^{3}}{(3)!} = 0.1607

P(X \leq 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) = 0.1653 + 0.2975 + 0.2678 + 0.1607 = 0.8913

0.8913 = 89.13% probability that the family took three or fewer trips to amusement parks over a three-year period.

e.The family took exactly four trips to amusement parks during a six-year period.

Six years, so \mu = 0.6(6) = 3.6.

This is P(X = 4). So

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}

P(X = 4) = \frac{e^{-3.6}*(3.6)^{4}}{(4)!} = 0.1912

0.1912 = 19.12% probability that the family took exactly four trips to amusement parks during a six-year period.

4 0
3 years ago
The table shows a linear function.
Korolek [52]

Answer:

-3

Step-by-step explanation:

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8 0
2 years ago
Luciano is training for a 10-kilometer race. How many meters is 10 kilometers?
Elina [12.6K]

Answer:

10000

Step-by-step explanation:

it is 10000 because 1 kilometer is a thousand meters

7 0
3 years ago
Solve this using substitution method. Many many thanks
In-s [12.5K]

Answer:

y=2 and x=1

Step-by-step explanation:

sub 2 into 1

3(15-7y) + 4y= 11

45 - 21y +4y =11

-21y+4y= 11-45

-17y= - 34

y=2

Therefore sub y into x equation

x=15-7(2)

x= 1

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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