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Rashid [163]
3 years ago
12

Can someone help me with this?

Mathematics
1 answer:
abruzzese [7]3 years ago
3 0
A) vertical angles
B) same side interior angles
C) alternate interior angles
D) corresponding angles
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How many times of 0.00019% to equal 1%
ra1l [238]

Answer:

5263.15789474

Step by Step:

1 ÷ 0.00019 = 5263.15789474

Checking Answer:

0.00019 x 5263.15789474 = 1

So the answer is indeed 5263.15789474

Hope this Helps! :)

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
2.5_2.05 answer plz help
mezya [45]
Your answer is 0.45 I think
7 0
3 years ago
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Parallelogram PQRS has diagonals that are perpendicular. Based on that, which statement is most correct?
viva [34]

Answer:

B- Parallelogram PQRS is also a rhombus.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Parallelogram PQRS with perpendicular diagonals

Required

Which of the option is true

(a) PQRS can be a rectangle

A rectangle do not have perpendicular diagonals.

Hence, (a) is false

<em>If (a) is false, then (d) is also false</em>

(b) PQRS can a rhombus

The diagonals of a rhombus are not perpendicular.

So (b) <em>is true</em>

<em>No need to check for (c), since only option is true</em>

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You know that a rope is no more than 150 feet long. You need to cut the rope into 3 pieces.
Sunny_sXe [5.5K]

Answer:

80 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

<em>hey there,</em>

<em />

< We know that the rope is 3 pieces long. To make this into an equation, let's just write x + y + z = 150.

Assuming "y" is our second piece, we can tell y = 2x, because it is two times the size of the first piece, which is "x". We also know "z" (our third piece): z = 30.

We can try inputting all the things we know now. x + (2x) + 30 = 150. From here, we can find that x = 40. Since y is our second piece, y = 2x, so 2 x (40) = 80. The second piece would be 80 feet long. >

<u>Hope this helped! Feel free to ask anything else.</u>

7 0
3 years ago
Which expression is equivalent to 2^2×2/2^4
dusya [7]
First step is to simplify the equation so that it makes our life easier! Since 2^2 is equivalent to 4, we can plug that into the equation. Then we can also simplify 2^4 to 16. Now it should look like this:

(4)(2)/16

Now we can solve. 4(2) = 8 so now we have 8/16. 8/16 simplifies to 1/8 when you divide the numerator and the denominator by 8. So there you go! Your final answer is 1/8! I really hope that helped you out, and happy holidays!
6 0
3 years ago
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