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2 years ago

13

I need help don’t understand

2 answers:

nadya68 [22]2 years ago

8 0

If f(x)=x+1 and then x became 2, you would have the function f(x)=3. So basically for that function you would be going up three over 1. That function is already g(x)=4x. If X became 2, you would have g(x)=8x. The rate of up 8 and then over one. Because of that, g(x) would be higher

Mama L [17]2 years ago

8 0

okay first off: we both use the same virtual school and i just thought that was cool lol

the equation for g(x) is g(x)=4x-5 so when you substitute in x it becomes

g(x)= 4(2) -5 or g(x)= 8-5 which equals g(x)=3

when you substitute in x, f(x) becomes

f(x)= 2 + 1 which equals f(x)=3

therefore when x=2, both functions are equal :)

hope this helps!!

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