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loris [4]
3 years ago
14

Which number is greater? 1. 0.9461 2. 0.9727

Mathematics
2 answers:
JulijaS [17]3 years ago
3 0
Second number is the correct answer
Bumek [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

0.9727

Step-by-step explanation:

its higher number

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The number of accidents on a certain section of I-40 averages 4 accidents per weekday independent across weekdays. Assuming the
AysviL [449]

Answer:

1.83% probability there are no car accidents on that stretch on Monday

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}

In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

\mu is the mean in the given time interval.

The number of accidents on a certain section of I-40 averages 4 accidents per weekday independent across weekdays.

This means that \mu = 4

What is the probability there are no car accidents on that stretch on Monday?

This is P(X = 0).

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}

P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-4}*(4)^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.0183

1.83% probability there are no car accidents on that stretch on Monday

5 0
3 years ago
Please tell me the right answer.
Komok [63]

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
PLZ fast I will give for best
kakasveta [241]

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply both sides of the equation by 2

3x-4=14

Add 4

3x=18

Divide by 3

x=6

Good luck! Let me know if you need more help.

5 0
3 years ago
Different shapes are drawn on cards and then the cards are placed in a bag. The number of cards for each shape is shown in the t
Anvisha [2.4K]
We can first add up the cards so we know how many we have in all:
16 + 16 + 18 = 50 cards

We can do this a little bit easier if we get the "16"-cards in one number total.

16 + 16 = 32

\frac{32}{50} = 32 x 2 = \frac{64}{100}
                                         50 x 2 

\frac{64}{100} = 64 : 2 = 32 %
                                            100
We did just divide the % of two types cards on 2, so we get the %-chance of 1 type card.

I am not quite sure, but I think that 32 % is the correct answer.
6 0
3 years ago
Pls help me 10 points
Dennis_Churaev [7]

Answer:

k=3/5

Step-by-step explanation:

k=y/x

k=3/5

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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