The area of a rectangle is 45.5 square inches. The base of the rectangle is 7 inches.

Which of the following is equivalent to x^-1/2 1) -1/2x 2) -√x 3) 1/√x 4) -1/2x

irina [24]

Answer:

Option (3) is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to find the expression that is equivalent to $x^{-1/2}$ .

The property is : $x^{-a}=\dfrac{1}{x^a}$

Here, a = 1/2

So,

$x^{-1/2}=\dfrac{1}{x^{1/2}}$

We know that, $x^{1/2}=\sqrt{x}$

$\dfrac{1}{x^{1/2}}=\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{x} }$

So, $x^{-1/2}$ is equivalent to $\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{x} }$

Hence, the correct option is (3).

3 0

3 years ago

Find the distance between the points (-8,-6) and (4, 10)

never [62]

Answer:

d=20

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the distance between 2 points we use the distance formula

d = √(x2 - x1)²+(y2 - y1)²

The given points are (x1= -8, y1 = -6) and (x2 = 4, y2 = 10).

Substitute the given points into the distance formula.

d = √(4 + 8)²+(10 +6)²

d = √144+252

d= √400

d = 20

3 0

2 years ago

Can someone help me with this? I need it before Monday. I will give brainlist!! If the picture is too blurry here is the problem

tigry1 [53]

Answer:

1. total volume of box=2.5(V)D

2. 7 Drawers

Step-by-step explanation:

2.5 = V

so 1 draw = 2.5 cubic inches of volume

so V(2.5) × D(number of drawers) = total volume of drawers in the box

6 0

1 year ago

Triangle ABC has the following properties: Angle A measures 120°; AB ≅ AC. What is the classification of triangle ABC by angles

Flura [38]

The answer is C <<<=====
It can't be anything else. It is not a right angle. A>90
It can't be acute because one angle is greater than 90.
It can't scalene because at least 2 of the angles (and 2 sides) are equal.

8 0

3 years ago

7. In a state lottery, a player must choose 8 of the numbers from 1 to 40. The lottery commission then performs an experiment th

Vlad1618 [11]

Answer:a) P(8 of the players numbers are drawn)=1.3×10^-8

b) P(7 of the players number are drrawn)=3.33×10^-c) P(at least 6 of the players number were drawn)=1.84×10^-4

Step-by-step explanation:

Players has 8 combinations of numbers from 1-40. The outcome S contains all the combinations of 8 out of 40

a) P(8 of the players numbers are drawn)= 1/40/8= 1.3×10^-8

There are one in hundred million chances that the draw numbers are precisely the chosen ones.

b) Number of ways of drawing 78 selected numbers from 1-40=8×(40-7)

8×32

P(7 of the players number are drawn)=8×32/40 =3.33×10^-6.

There are approximately 300,000 chances that 7 of the players numbers are chosen

c) P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn)= 32/2×(8/6) ways to draw.

P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn)=P(all 8 chosen are drawn)+P(7 players numbers drawn)+P(6 chosen are drawn) = 1+ 8 x32/40/8 +[8\6 ×32/2]

P(at least 6 players numbers are drawn) = 1.84×10^-4.

There are approximately 5400chances that at least6 of the numbers drawn are chosen by the player.

5 0

3 years ago