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elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]
4 years ago
14

A 1.0-mm-diameter ball bearing has 2.0 * 109 excess electrons. what is the ball bearing's potential?

Physics
1 answer:
Aleks04 [339]4 years ago
4 0

Bearing potential of Ball= 5760 V

Explanation:

the electric potential is given by

V=\frac{K Q}{r}

Q= electrostatic constant= 9 x 10⁹ Nm²/C

Q= charge= n e

n= number of electrons= 2 x 10⁹

e= charge of electron=-1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ C

so Q=2 x 10⁹ (-1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ )

Q= -3. 2 x 10⁻¹⁰ C

r= radius of sphere=1/2 mm= 0.0005 m

V=\frac{9\times10^{9}\times(-3.2\times10^{-10)}}{0.0005}

V= 5760 volt

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Answer:

a) 5.63 atm

Explanation:

We can use combined gas law

<em>The combined gas law</em> combines the three gas laws:

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It states that the ratio of the product of pressure and volume and the absolute temperature of a gas is equal to a constant.

P₁V₁/T₁ =P₂V₂/T₂

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The volume of the system remains constant,

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a) \frac{5}{278} =\frac{P_2}{313}  \\\\P_2=\frac{5*313}{278}\\ P_2 = 5.63 atm

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4 years ago
A standard basketball (mass = 624 grams; 24.3 cm in diameter) is held fully under water. a. Calculate the buoyant force and weig
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Answer:

Explanation:

Mass = 624 gm = .624 kg

weight = .624 x 9.8

= 6.11 N

Radius of ball = 12.15 x 10⁻² cm

volume of ball

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= 7509.26 x 10⁻⁶ m³

Buoyant force = weight of displaced water

= 7509.26 x 10⁻⁶ x 10³ x 9.8

= 73.59 N

b ) Since buoyant force exceeds the weight of the ball , it will float .

c )

Let volume v sticks out while floating .

Volume under water

= 7509.26 x 10⁻⁶ - v

its weight

= (7509.26 x 10⁻⁶ - v ) x 10³ x 9.8

For floating

(7509.26 x 10⁻⁶ - v ) x 10³ x 9.8  =  .624 x 9.8 ( weight of ball )

(7509.26 x 10⁻⁶ - v ) x 10³ = .624

7.509 - v x 10³ = .624

v x 10³ = 7.509 - .624

v x 10³ = 6.885

v = 6.885 x 10⁻³ m³

fraction

= v / total volume

=  6.885 x 10⁻³ / 7.51 x 10⁻³

91.67 %

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A fuzzy bunny sees a butterfly and chases it right off of a 20 m high cliff at 7m/s
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A) 2.02 s

To find the time it takes for the bunny to reach the rocks below the cliff, we just need to analyze its vertical motion. This motion is a free fall motion, which is a uniformly accelerated motion. So we can use the suvat equation:

s=u_y t+\frac{1}{2}at^2

where

s is the vertical displacement

u is the initial vertical velocity

a is the acceleration

t is the time

For the bunny here, choosing downward as positive direction,

u_y = 0 (initial vertical velocity is zero)

s = 20 m

a=g=9.8 m/s^2 (acceleration of gravity)

And solving for t, we find the time of flight:

t=\sqrt{\frac{2s}{g}}=\sqrt{\frac{2(20)}{9.8}}=2.02 s

B) 14.1 m

For this part, we need to consider the horizontal motion of the bunny.

The horizontal motion of the bunny is a uniform motion with constant velocity, which is the initial velocity of the bunny:

v_x = 7 m/s

Therefore the distance covered after time t is given by

d=v_x t

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The horizontal component of the velocity is constant during the entire motion, so it will still be the same when the bunny hits the ground:

v_x = 7 m/s

Instead, the vertical velocity is given by

v_y = u_y +at

And substituting t = 2.02 s, we find the vertical velocity at the moment of impact:

v_y = 0+(9.8)(2.02)=19.8 m/s

So, the magnitude of the final velocity is

v=\sqrt{v_x^2+v_y^2}=\sqrt{7^2+(19.8)^2}=21.0 m/s

And the angle is given by

\theta=tan^{-1}(\frac{v_y}{v_x})=tan^{-1}(\frac{19.8}{7})=70.5^{\circ}

below the horizontal

5 0
3 years ago
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