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Vsevolod [243]
3 years ago
6

if two girls have 280 dollars and one spends 2/3 of it and has 36 dollars left. how much does the other girl have left if she sp

ent 3/4 of it?
Mathematics
1 answer:
My name is Ann [436]3 years ago
4 0

the  main equation you need to do is just 36 x (3/4), you will get that 27 dollars has been spent.

now you just do 36 - 27 to get the final answer

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Plz help! Don’t understand this question
solniwko [45]

Answer:

11.91

Step-by-step explanation:

The question says there is a new line that connects V and T. If this line is drawn, the diagram would have a right-angle triangle. This triangle is called TUV.

In triangle TUV, the side length created by the points VT is the hypotenuse.

For right-angle triangles, you can use the Pythagorean theorem to find any side.

It's in the format side² + side² = hypotenuse².

To use the formula, you need to know the length of the other two sides. The length of these sides, because they are exactly horizontal or vertical, is found by subtracting the smaller coordinate from the other (that is not the same).

The lengths of other sides:

VU:

-3 is the same. The length is 3.5 - (-5.75) = 9.25

UT:

-5.75 is the same. The length is 4.5 - (-3) = 7.5

Substitute the lengths into the Pythagorean theorem:

a² + b² = c²

9.25² + 7.5² = c²  Simplify

141.8125 = c²  Find the square root of both sides to isolate c

c = 11.91  Final answer, length of VT

7 0
3 years ago
I’m stuck on this question
Korolek [52]
F(2y + 1) is 2


+
for this question
4 0
3 years ago
Sean and Leah are playing a computer game. Sean scored 72,491points. Leah scored 19,326 points more than Sean.How many points di
natita [175]
72,491 + 19,326 = 91,817
Leah scored 91,817 points
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The difference between an ostrich's speed and a chicken's speed
hjlf

Answer:

9 miles an hour

Step-by-step explanation:

9

3 0
3 years ago
NCr/nPr=r!<br><br> give proof.
Sergio [31]
<span>It's 1/r! 

nCr = n! / r!(n-r)! 
nPr = n! / (n-r)! 

If you divide the two you'd have: 

n! / r! (n-r)! * (n-r)! / n! = 1/r!

I hope my answer has come to your help. Thank you for posting your question here in Brainly. We hope to answer more of your questions and inquiries soon. Have a nice day ahead!
</span>
3 0
3 years ago
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