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3 years ago

50 POINTS ILL GIVE BRAINLIEST ! random answers will be reported!

Mathematics

2 answers:

nlexa [21]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

4)P = $615.38. 5)P = $1,482.35

Step-by-step explanation:

4)P = $615.38

Equation:

P = A / (1 + rt)

Calculation:

First, converting R percent to r a decimal

r = R/100 = 4%/100 = 0.04 per year.

Solving our equation:

P = 640 / ( 1 + (0.04 × 1)) = 615.38461538462

P = $615.38

The principal investment required to get a total amount, principal plus interest, of $640.00 from simple interest at a rate of 4% per year for 1 years is $615.38.

2)P = $1,482.35

Equation:

P = A / (1 + rt)

Calculation:

First, converting R percent to r a decimal

r = R/100 = 12%/100 = 0.12 per year.

Solving our equation:

P = 2016 / ( 1 + (0.12 × 3)) = 1482.3529411765

P = $1,482.35

The principal investment required to get a total amount, principal plus interest, of $2,016.00 from simple interest at a rate of 12% per year for 3 years is $1,482.35.

Akimi4 [234]3 years ago

5 0

Отзовись ярму рыцарь бы б

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Tim and Tom are painters. Tim and Tom are painting a crate. Tom paints 10 sq ft per minute. They painted a particular crate in 1

slava [35]

Tom-------------- >10 sq ft per minute

Tim------------------- >3.5*10=35 sq ft per minute

Both painters (10+35)=45 sq ft per minute

let's assume a cubic unit crate----------> V1=1*1*1=1 feet3

the total surface of the cube is S1=6*(1*1)=6 sq ft

if the volume of the cube increases twice

V2=2 feet3 ------------------- > 2=x*x*x------------- >x=2^(1/3)

And the S2=6*(2^(1/3)* 2^(1/3)=9.5244 sq ft

V2/V1=9.5244/6=1.5874

Therefore

If Tim and Tom----------------------- > take 1 day----------- > to paint a crate V1

For the crate V2------------- > take 1.5874 days

assuming an 8-hour work day

0.5874*8=4.70 hr-------------- > 4 h 42 min

The answer is 1 day 4h 42 min

6 0

4 years ago

In Δ ABC and ΔXYZ ,∠B=∠X=90 and BC=XZ .What additional information is required to make Δ ABC congruent to ΔXYZ by R.H.S conditio

Pani-rosa [81]

Answer:

AC = XY

Step-by-step explanation:

A triangle is a polygon with three sides and three angles. The types of triangles are scalene triangle, equilateral triangle, right angled triangle and obtuse triangle.

Two triangles are said to be congruent if all the three sides and three angles of one triangle is equal to the three sides and three angles of the other triangle.

In Δ ABC and ΔXYZ ,∠B=∠X=90. This means that triangle ABC and triangle XYZ are right angled triangle since one of their angles is 90 degrees.

The hypotenuse is the side opposite to right angle (90 degrees).

Therefore AC is the hypotenuse of triangle ABC and YZ is the hypotenuse of triangle XYZ.

If the hypotenuse and one leg of a right angled triangle is equal to the hypotenuse and leg of another right angled triangle, then the two triangles are congruent by RHS rule.

Since BC = XY, for Δ ABC congruent to ΔXYZ by R.H.S condition, the hypotenuse have to be equal, i.e. AC = XY

7 0

3 years ago

Divide 405 in to the ratio 3:12 give answer in the form ... and ...

OLEGan [10]

Answer:

81:324

Step-by-step explanation:

3+12=15

405 div 15 =27

3 times 27 = 81

12 times 27 = 324

81:324

6 0

3 years ago

The denominator of a fraction is 4 more than its numerator.

alukav5142 [94]

<h3>Answer:</h3>

<h3>Step-by-step explanation:</h3>

Let n represent the numerator of the original fraction, which is n/(n+4). After adding 1/2, the value is (2(n+4)+1)/(2(n+4)), so we have ...

n/(n+4) + 1/2 = (2(n+4)+1)/(2(n+4))

Simplifying gives ...

... (2n +(n+4))/(2(n+4)) = (2n +9)/(2(n+4))

Since the denominators are the same, we can work only with the numerators.

3n +4 = 2n +9

n = 5 . . . . . . . . . . . subtract 2n+4

_____

Check

The original fraction is 5/(5+4) = 5/9. Adding 1/2 gives ...

5/9 + 1/2 = 10/18 + 9/18 = 19/18

Note the numerator of this last fraction is 1 more than the denominator, which is twice the original denominator.

8 0

3 years ago

A lottery sells 1000 tickets at $1 apiece. There is one winner who receives $100, and 5 second place winners who receive $50 eac

DaniilM [7]

Chance of winning $100 = 1/1000
chance of winning $50 = 5/1000 = 1/200 
cost of ticket = -1 
E[x] = 100* 1/1000 + 50* 1/200 -1 
= 0.1 + 0.25 - 1 = -0.65

Hope this helps

5 0

3 years ago