So here. I don't know how to explain so-
Can someone plz help me
1 answer:
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Answer:
The population does not need to be normally distributed for the sampling distribution of to be approximately normally distributed. Because of the central limit theorem. The sampling distribution of
is approximately normal.
Step-by-step explanation:
We have a random sample of size from a population with
and
. Because n is large enough (i.e., n > 30) and
and
are both finite, we can apply the central limit theorem that tell us that the sampling distribution of
is approximatelly normally distributed, this independently of the distribution of the random sample.
is asymptotically normally distributed is another way to state this.