25 is your answer , thanks
Answer:
x=242/3
alternative form= 80 2/3, x=80.6
Step-by-step explanation:
3x-4y=242
substitute y = 0
3x-4x0=242
calculate the product
3x-0=242
remove 0
3x=242
divide both sides (by 3 in order to leave x by itself)
done
Answer:
0.8746 = 87.46% probability of at least 6 failures in 7 trials.
Step-by-step explanation:
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

In which
is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

And p is the probability of X happening.
7 trials
This means that 
The probability of success in any trial is 9%?
So the probability of a failure is 100 - 9 = 91%, which means that 
Probability of at least 6 failures in 7 trials?
This is:

In which




0.8746 = 87.46% probability of at least 6 failures in 7 trials.
Answer: (
, 0), (
, 0)
Step-by-step explanation: Let me know if you need an explanation.
Answer:
5. 
Step-by-step explanation:
==>>We would have to multiply the original amount by 1.50^x because the initial amount would be 1, and 50% increase would be .5 so 1.5 and you raise it to the number of years to show the total increase.
Initial: 10,000
After 1 year
10,000 + (.5*10000)
10,000 + 5000 = 15,000
--
After 2 years
15,000 + (.5*15000)
15,000 + 7500 = 22,500
--
Let's try our equation.




*Edit: I just seen that the question is related to the picture question