A 29-year-old G1P0 woman at 41 weeks gestation presents for a prenatal visit. Her prenatal course is complicated by tobacco abus
e and intermittent prenatal care. Her last visit was at 35 weeks. Prenatal labs are unremarkable except cervical DNA probe positive for Chlamydia, which was treated, and a Pap smear with low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. Ultrasound at 21 weeks was consistent with gestational age based on her certain regular LMP. Her vitals reveal a blood pressure of 128/76; pulse 74; and temperature 98° F (36.7° C). Fundal height is 39 cm with estimated fetal weight of 2700 gm. Cervix is dilated to 1 cm, 50% effaced, -2 station. What is the next best step in the management of this patient? A. Return visit in one week
B. Non-stress test and assessment of amniotic fluid volume
C. Ultrasound to assess fetal growth
D. Oxytocin challenge test
E. Cesarean section
