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Paha777 [63]
2 years ago
8

A pump is used to extract water from a reservoir and deliver it to another reservoir whose free surface elevation is 200 ft abov

e that of the first. the total length of pipes required is 1000 ft. All pipes are 12 in. in diameter and are made of galvanized iron with relative roughness equal to 0.0005 (you may assume fully-rough flow). the pump performance curves suggest that the H-Q relationship is of the form: H_pump=665-0.051Q^2 (Q in ft) the expected flow rate the brake horsepower required to drive the pump (assume an efficiency of 78%). the location of pump inlet to avoid cavitation (assume the required NPSH=25 ft).
Engineering
1 answer:
babunello [35]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

a) the expected flow rate is 31.4 ft³/s

b) the required brake horsepower is 2808.4 bhp

c) the location of pump inlet to avoid cavitation is -8.4 ft

Explanation:

Given the data in the question;

free surface elevation = 200 ft

total length of pipe required = 1000 ft

diameter = 12 inch

Iron with relative roughness ( k/D ) = 0.0005

H_{pump = 665-0.051Q² [Qinft ]

a) the expected flow rate

given that;

k/D  = 0.0005

k/2R = 0.0005

R/k = 1000

now, we determine the friction factor;

1/√f = 2log₁₀( R/k ) + 1.74

we substitute

1/√f = 2log₁₀( 1000 ) + 1.74

1/√f = 6 + 1.74

1/√f = 7.74

√f = 1/7.74

√f = 0.1291989

f = (0.1291989)²

f = 0.01669

Now, Using Bernoulli theorem between two reservoirs;

(p/ρq)₁ + (v²/2g)₁ + z₁ + H_p = (p/ρq)₂ + (v²/2g)₂ + z₂ + h_L

so

0 + 0 + 0 + 665-0.051Q² = 0 + 0 + 200 + flQ²/2gdA²

665-0.051Q² = 200 + flQ²/2gdA²

665-0.051Q² = 200 +[  ( 0.01669 × 1000 × Q² ) / (2 × 32.2 × (π/4)² × 1⁵ )

665 - 0.051Q² = 200 + [ 16.69Q² / 39.725 ]

665 - 200 - 0.051Q² = 0.420138Q²

665 - 200 = 0.420138Q² + 0.051Q²

465 = 0.471138Q²

Q² = 465 / 0.471138

Q² = 986.97196

Q = √986.97196

Q = 31.4 ft³/s

Therefore, the expected flow rate is 31.4 ft³/s

b) the brake horsepower required to drive the pump (assume an efficiency of 78%).

we know that;

P = ρgH_pQ / η

where; H_p = 665 - 0.051(986.97196) = 614.7

we substitute;

P = ( 62.42 × 614.7 × 31.4 ) / ( 0.78 × 550 )

P = 1204804.6236 / 429

P = 2808.4 bhp

Therefore, the required brake horsepower is 2808.4 bhp

c) the location of pump inlet to avoid cavitation (assume the required NPSH=25 ft).

NPSH = (P_{atom / ρg) - h_s - ( P_v / ρg )

we substitute

25  = ( 2116 / 62.42 ) - h_s - ( 30 / 62.42 )

h_s = 8.4 ft

Therefore, the location of pump inlet to avoid cavitation is -8.4 ft

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2 years ago
A budding electronics hobbyist wants to make a simple 1.0-nF capacitor for tuning her crystal radio, using two sheets of aluminu
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Answer:

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c. To keep a 1.0-nF, a larger area of Teflon is required.

Explanation:

a.

First, we need to calculate the distance between two plates.

This is given by

d = Kε0A/C

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Here, she's changed the diameter of the sheets to 12mm

Well make use of the formula in (a) above

Using d = Kε0A/C

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A = dC/Kε0

A = (12 * 10^-3m * 1 * 10^-12F)/(3 * 8.854 * 10^-12 C²/Nm²)

A= 0.45m²

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As the dielectric constant increase, the area decreases

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Answer:

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Explanation:

The optimum cutting speed for the minimum cost

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Where,

C,n = Taylor equation parameters

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C_m= Machine and operator cost per minute

On comparing with the Taylor equation VT^n=C,

Tool life,

T= \left[ \left(T_t+\frac{C_e}{C_m}\right)\left(\frac{1}{n}-1\right)\right]}\;\cdots(ii)

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Cost of operator and machine time=\$40/hr=\$0.667/min

Batch setting time = 2 hr

Part handling time: T_h=2.5 min

Part diameter: D=73 mm =73\times 10^{-3} m

Part length: l=250 mm=250\times 10^{-3} m

Feed: f=0.30 mm/rev= 0.3\times 10^{-3} m/rev

Depth of cut: d=3.5 mm

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Tool cost is $20 and it can be ground and reground 15 times and the grinding= $2/grind.

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where,

T_m= Machining time for one part

n_p= Number of pieces cut in one tool life

T_m= \frac{l}{fN} min, where N=\frac{V_{opt}}{\pi D} is the rpm of the spindle.

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Round it to the lower integer

\Rightarrow n_p=13

So, the cycle time

T_c=2.5+4.01+\frac{3}{13}=6.74 min/pc

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C_c= C_mT_c+\frac{C_e}{n_p}

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(f) The proportion of time spent actually cutting metal

=\frac{50\times4.01}{457}=0.4387=43.87\%

Now, for the cemented carbide tool:

Cost per edge,

C_e= \$8/6=\$1.33/edge

Tool changing time, T_t=1min

C= 650 m/min

n=0.30

(a) Cutting speed for the minimum cost:

V_{opt}= \frac {650}{\left[ \left(1+\frac{1.33}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.3}-1\right)\right]^{0.3}}=363m/min [from(i)]

(b) Tool life,

T=\left[ \left(1+\frac{1.33}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.3}-1\right)\right]=7min [from(ii)]

(c) Cycle time:

T_c=T_h+T_m+\frac{T_t}{n_p}

T_m= \frac{\pi D l}{fV_{opt}}

\Rightarrow T_m=\frac{\pi \times 73 \times 250\times 10^{-6}}{0.3\times 10^{-3}\times 363}=0.53min/pc

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So, the cycle time

T_c=2.5+0.53+\frac{1}{13}=3.11 min/pc

(d) Cost per production unit:

C_c= C_mT_c+\frac{C_e}{n_p}

\Rightarrow C_c=0.667\times3.11+\frac{1.33}{13}=\$2.18/pc

(e) Total time to complete the batch=2\times60+ {50\times 3.11}{50}=275.5 min=4.59 hr.

(f) The proportion of time spent actually cutting metal

=\frac{50\times0.53}{275.5}=0.0962=9.62\%

Similarly, for the ceramic tool:

C_e= \$10/6=\$1.67/edge

T_t-1min

C= 3500 m/min

n=0.6

(a) Cutting speed:

V_{opt}= \frac {3500}{\left[ \left(1+\frac{1.67}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.6}-1\right)\right]^{0.6}}

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T=\left[ \left(1+\frac{1.67}{0.667}\right)\left(\frac{1}{0.6}-1\right)\right]=2.33 min

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T_c=2.5+0.091+\frac{1}{25}=2.63 min/pc

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C_c= C_mT_c+\frac{C_e}{n_p}

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(e) Total time to complete the batch

=2\times60+ {50\times 2.63}=251.5 min=4.19 hr.

(f) The proportion of time spent actually cutting metal

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