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3 years ago

Which best explains why all equilateral triangles are similar?

Mathematics

2 answers:

Neko [114]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps you out!

Kruka [31]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

all equilateral triangle’s can be mapped onto each other using dilations.

Step-by-step explanation:

Because you can dilate or increase the size and scale the triangle about a certain point so if you do it correctly, this can be done with just a dilation.

Also an equilateral triangle is defined as a triangle where all the sides are congruent in length. This does not mean that all equilateral triangles are congruent (Do not get confused with D) to each other since size is the undefined variable so all equilateral triangles are proportional which means that they always have a ratio between them depending on the scale factor.

For example, let's say I have an equilateral triangle with a side length of 2, this means that all the sides must have a length of 2, but I can also have an equilateral triangle with a side length of 3, which means that all the sides will have that length for that triangle.

2 ≠ 3, but there is always a conversion factor between the side lengths. In this case a scale factor of 3/2 from the triangle with a side length of 2 to the one with a side length of 3. And a scale factor of 2/3 going from the triangle with a side length of 3 to the triangle with a side length of 2. Because all the sides are congruent, the angles must all be 60° degrees because individual side proportions defined by trigonometry are based on angles and sides. Thus, the angles are also affected due to the change in ratio.

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What is the area of a rectangle with points at (−4, 0), (−3, 1), (0, −2), and (−1, −3)? Do not round any side lengths.

Luda [366]

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3 years ago

Calculate the percent change in net sales from

oksian1 [2.3K]

Answer:

8.7%

Step-by-step explanation:

Well the net sales of Quarter 1 = 115 whilst the net sales of Quarter 2 = 125.

So the difference in the 2 numbers is 125-115 = 10

To find percentage change, you do 10/115 = 0.0869565217

Then, 0.0869565217 x 100 = 8.7% change to 1 decimal point.

So your percentage change is 8.7%.

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2 years ago

Figure ABCD is transformed to obtain figure A′B′C′D′:

xz_007 [3.2K]

Answer:

Part A

Reflect over the y-axis: (x, y) → (-x, y)
A (-4, 4) → (4, 4)
B (-2, 2) → (2, 2)
C (-2, -1) → (2, -1)
D (-4, 1) → (4, 1)
Shift 4 units down: (x, y-4)
(4, 4-4) → A' (4, 0)
(2, 2-4) → B' (2, -2)
(2, -1-4) → C' (2, -5)
(4, 1-4) → D' (4, -3)

Part B

Two figures are congruent if they have the same shape and size. (They are allowed to be rotated, reflected and translated, but not resized).

Therefore, ABCD and A'B'C'D' are congruent. They are the same shape and size as they have only be reflected and translated.

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2 years ago

Hii please help i’ll give brainliest if you give a correct answer tysm

Elza [17]

Hello!

$\large\boxed{4 : 3 \text{ and } 16 : 12}$

We can go through each answer to verify whether each is equivalent to 8 : 6.

4 : 3 is equivalent to 8 : 6 because reducing the ratio 8 : 6 by a factor of 2 yields 4 : 3.

6 : 8 is not equivalent to 8 : 6 because the ratio is reversed.

16 : 12 is equivalent to 8 : 6 because the ratio is increased by a factor of 2.

10 : 8 is not equivalent to 8 : 6. We can verify this by checking whether each term was scaled equally:

10 ÷ 8 = 1.25

8 ÷ 6 = 1.33. Therefore, they are unequal.

7 : 5 is not equal to 8 : 6 for the same reason.

The only correct choices are:

4 : 3 and 16 : 12.

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3 years ago

“if the same strength and direction Of force is exerted on 2 objects, why might they be affected differently?” Answer journal #7

Ulleksa [173]

Answer:

If one is larger, there will be less stress on the middle of the object

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers