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3 years ago

Simplify sin^2y/sec^2 y−1 to a single trigonometric function

Mathematics

1 answer:

liubo4ka [24]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

$\frac{ { \sin}^{2} y}{ { \sec}^{2}y - 1 } = { \cos }^{2} y$

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that ${ \tan }^{2} y = { \sec }^{2} y - 1$

Also , ${ \tan}^{2} y = \frac{ { \sin }^{2} y}{ { \cos }^{2}y }$

So ,

$\frac{ { \sin }^{2}y }{ { \sec }^{2}y - 1 } = \frac{ { \sin}^{2} y}{ { \tan }^{2} y} = \frac{ { \sin }^{2}y }{ \frac{ { \sin}^{2} y}{ { \cos}^{2}y } } = { \cos }^{2} y$

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The mean is defined as a

OverLord2011 [107]

All the numbers added up then divided by the amount of numbers.

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3 years ago

How do you do it?I'm lost

Leto [7]

Answer and Step-by-step explanation:

The way you complete this is by taking each points x and y and applying the translation. In this case the translation is x-7 and y+1.

Q's x and y are 1 , 1

R's x and y are 1 , 5

T's x and y are 5 , 1

S's x and y are 5 , 5

Now what you do is use the translation on all of these values.

Q's x and y turns into -6 , 2 (subtracted 7 to the 1 and added 1 to the 1)

R's x and y turns into -6 , 6

T's x and y are -2 , 2

S's x and y are -2 , 6

You can then plot the points on the graph and connect the lines to complete the reflection.

Hope this helps ! !

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3 years ago

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Elanso [62]

The top answer on your screen is the answer. Hope this help

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3 years ago

Every day your friend commutes to school on the subway at 9 AM. If the subway is on time, she will stop for a $3 coffee on the w

Shtirlitz [24]

Answer:

1.02% probability of spending 0 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

7.68% probability of spending 3 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

23.04% probability of spending 6 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

34.56% probability of spending 9 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

25.92% probability of spending 12 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

7.78% probability of spending 12 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

Step-by-step explanation:

For each day, there are only two possible outcomes. Either the subway is on time, or it is not. Each day, the probability of the train being on time is independent from other days. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this problem.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

In this problem we have that:

The probability that the subway is delayed is 40%. 100-40 = 60% of the train being on time, so $p = 0.6$

The week has 5 days, so $n = 5$

She spends 3 dollars on coffee each day the train is on time.

Probabability that she spends 0 dollars on coffee:

This is the probability of the train being late all 5 days, so it is P(X = 0).

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{5,0}.(0.6)^{0}.(0.4)^{5} = 0.0102$

1.02% probability of spending 0 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

Probabability that she spends 3 dollars on coffee:

This is the probability of the train being late for 4 days and on time for 1, so it is P(X = 1).

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 1) = C_{5,1}.(0.6)^{1}.(0.4)^{4} = 0.0768$

7.68% probability of spending 3 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

Probabability that she spends 6 dollars on coffee:

This is the probability of the train being late for 3 days and on time for 2, so it is P(X = 2).

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 2) = C_{5,2}.(0.6)^{2}.(0.4)^{3} = 0.2304$

23.04% probability of spending 6 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

Probabability that she spends 9 dollars on coffee:

This is the probability of the train being late for 2 days and on time for 3, so it is P(X = 3).

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 3) = C_{5,3}.(0.6)^{3}.(0.4)^{2} = 0.3456$

34.56% probability of spending 9 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

Probabability that she spends 12 dollars on coffee:

This is the probability of the train being late for 1 day and on time for 4, so it is P(X = 4).

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 4) = C_{5,4}.(0.6)^{4}.(0.4)^{1} = 0.2592$

25.92% probability of spending 12 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

Probabability that she spends 15 dollars on coffee:

Probability that the subway is on time all days of the week, so $P(X = 5)$ .

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 5) = C_{5,5}.(0.6)^{5}.(0.4)^{0} = 0.0778$

7.78% probability of spending 12 dollars on coffee over the course of a five day week

8 0

4 years ago

What error did anna make?

Lapatulllka [165]

Answer:

The last option

Step-by-step explanation:

she did not change the sign of +6 to -6

the constant term should be -15 and not -3

6 0

4 years ago