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SVEN [57.7K]
3 years ago
12

Jeff and John shared equally in an inheritance. Using his inheritance, John immediately bought a 10-year annuity-due with annual

payments of 2500 each Jeff put his inheritance in an investment fund earning an annual effective interest rate of 9%. Two years later, Jeff bought a 15-year annuity-immediate with annual payment of Z. The present value of both annuities was determined using an annual effective interest rate of 8% Calculate Z. [SOA I1/96 84]
(A) 2330
(B) 2470
(C) 2515
(D) 2565 2715
Business
1 answer:
dolphi86 [110]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

(A) 2330

Explanation:

The present value of John's annuity = $2,500 x 7.24689 (PVIFAnnuity due, 8%, 10 periods) = $18,117.23

Jeff deposited $18,117.23 x 1.09 = $19,747.78

The annual dsitribution = $19,747.78 / 8.55948 (PVIFA, 8%, 15 periods) = $2,307.12

Since I used annuity factors, the answer is only an approximation. The closest option is (A)

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Piercy, LLC, has identified the following two mutually exclusive projects: Year Cash Flow (A) Cash Flow (B) 0 −$ 68,000 −$ 68,00
den301095 [7]

Answer:

IRR for A= 35.33%

IRR for B = 31.88%

Explanation:

Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested

IRR can be calculated using a finacial calculator :

IRR for cash flow A

Cash flow in year 0 = −$ 68,000

Cash flow in year 1 = $44,000

Cash flow in year 2 = $38,000

Cash flow in year 3 = $25,000

Cash flow in year 4 = $15,600

IRR = 35.33%

IRR for cash flow A

Cash flow in year 0 = −$ 68,000

Cash flow in year 1 = $30,200

Cash flow in year 2 =  34,200

Cash flow in year 3 = $40,000

Cash flow in year 4 = $24,200

IRR = 31.88%

To find the IRR using a financial calculator:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the IRR button and then press the compute button

7 0
4 years ago
Easywriter manufactures an erasable ballpoint pen, which sells for $1.75 per unit. management recently finished analyzing the re
maxonik [38]

a. 50 cents

Contribution margin per unit is price per unit- variable cost per unit

1.75 - ($50,000/40,000 units)

1.75 - 1.25 = $ .50

b. $8750

Margin of safety is the expected sales - break even sales

(45,000 units * $1.75 per unit) - (40,000 *1.75)

78,750 - 70,000 = $8750

6 0
3 years ago
The oviedo thespians are planning to present performances of their florida revue on 2 consecutive nights in january. it will cos
bagirrra123 [75]
<span>For 2 nights cost is $10,000 for theater rental, insurance, and musicians. 10% of $10,000 is $1000 that goes to theater if $10,000 worth of ticket is sold, which is to break even. Now the break even cost is $10,000+$1000= $11,000. Cost of one ticket is $10, to break even the total cost, number of tickets that must sell is $11,000 divided by $10, which is 1100 tickets. 1100 tickets must sell in total for two nights to break even.</span>
7 0
3 years ago
Suppose the United States has a comparative advantage over Mexico in producing pork. The principle of comparative advantage asse
vichka [17]

Answer:

d. Mexico has nothing to gain from importing United States pork.

Explanation:

The principle of comparative advantage asserts that countries (in this case Mexico) are better off importing certain goods (in this case pork), given that the opportunity cost of importing such goods are less in comparison to the production costs of manufacturing them within the country.

By definition, a country is said to have a <em>comparative advantage</em> over another, when they can produce a certain good or service at a lower marginal or opportunity cost.

6 0
3 years ago
A bakery makes a limited number of croissants each day for sale in its coffee shop. The croissants cost $1.00 each to produce an
slamgirl [31]

Answer:

$0.40 ; $1 and $71.43%

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

Excess cost is

=  Unit cost - Salvage Value

= $1 - $0.60

= $0.40

The shortage cost is

= Selling value - unit cost

= $2 - $1

= $1

And, the optimal service level is

= Shortage cost ÷ (Shortage cost + excess cost)

= $1 ÷ $1.60

= 71.43%

Basically we applied the above formulas

5 0
3 years ago
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