Answer:
11.21%
Explanation:
the opportunity cost of capital can be determined by calculating the weighted average cost of capital
WACC = [weight of equity x cost of equity[ + [weight of debt x cost of debt x (1 - tax rate)] + [weight of preferred stock x cost of preferred stock]
0.3 x 10.76 + (0.5 x 13.91) + (0.2 x 0.65 x 7,87)
3.228 + 6.955 + 1.231
11.21%
Answer: Yes, because it is a contract whose terms prevent possible performance within one year
Explanation:
The Statute of Fraud mandates that certain contracts need to be written down. These contracts include the sale of land, amounts involving more than $500 and contracts that have a timeframe of over a year.
Melinda entered into a contract with terms that have to be fulfilled in more than a year. It is therefore under the Statute of Frauds.
The assessed value of their new home is $46,750.
<h3>Assessed value</h3>
Using this formula
Assessed value=Appraisal amount× Assessment ratio
Where:
Appraisal amount=-$187,000
Assessment ratio=25%
Let plug in the formula
Assessed value=$187,000 × 0.25
Assessed value = $46,750
Learn more about Assessed value here:brainly.com/question/5428406
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<span>There are two possible types of advertising that apply. Companies such as maybelline often use push/persuasive advertising to convince consumers to take action such as switching brands, trying a new product, or even continuing to buy the advertised product.
1) Persuasive advertising is when company promotes its products in every possible way such as representing the promotional item by flyers, magazines, television, radio and billboards. Such type of advertising is considered to be traditional and its viral influence usually leads company to success in sales.
<span>
2) What about push advertising, this type is meant to make company be competitive in sphere of marketing. It is usually characterised by persuading promotion that is aimed to make a consumer buy a particular product, ensuring that this one is the best among its analogues.</span></span>
Answer:
X=97.24
Explanation:
PV = Present Value = X+2000 by the 16th years
PMT = Payments = $100
FV = Future Value = 2000 at the end of 16 years
n= number of years
Applying the equation of future value for annuity
FV = pmt* ((1+r)ⁿ - 1
)/r
Inputting the values;
2000=100*((1+r)¹⁶-1)/r
Solving for r, gives r = 2.9%
Therefore using the formula for PV for annuity;
PV=PMT*(1-(1/1+r)/r)
X=100*(1-(1/1.029)/0.029
X=100*((1-0.9718)/0.029)
X=100*(0.0282/0.029)
X=97.24
