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ohaa [14]
3 years ago
14

(2 4/10 + 8 4/5) - 3 1/5

Mathematics
2 answers:
yKpoI14uk [10]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

You can first simplify each fraction, so the it would be (24/10 + 44/5) - 16/5. And then add what is in the parenthesis, 556/5, and then subtract 16/5 to get 8.

True [87]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

it says use a calculater maybe if u used one it would help u out.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Rewrite 18 /5 as a mixed number.<br> 5 1/3<br> 5 5/3 <br> 3 3/5 <br> 3 5/3
maria [59]

Answer:

your awnser is 3 3/5

Step-by-step explanation:

all u do is 18 divided by 5 wich gives u 3 with a leftover of 3 so that gives u 3 3/5

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Select the equation that is equivalent to the equation: y+6=-4(X-2)
USPshnik [31]
First, you gotta distribute the -4 to x-2, 

<span>y+6=-4(X-2)
y+6=-4x+8

Then, subtract both sides by 6,
y+6-6=-4x+8-6
y=-4x+2

Done</span>
7 0
3 years ago
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Natalie works in a department store selling clothing. She makes a guaranteed salary of $300 per week, but is paid a commission o
Sergio039 [100]

Answer:

The answer is below

Step-by-step explanation:

a) Natalie basic salary is $300 per week. She is paid a commission of 30% of her total sales for the week. Therefore her total weekly salary per week is given by:

Total weekly salary = Basic salary + Commissions

If Natalie makes $225 in sales, her commission = 30% of $225 = 0.3 × $225 = $67.5

Total weekly salary = Basic salary + Commissions = $300 + $67.5

Total weekly salary = $367.5

b) If Natalie makes $x in sales, her commission = 30% of $x = 0.3 × $x = $0.3x

Total weekly salary = Basic salary + Commissions = $300 + $0.3x

Total weekly salary = $(300 + 0.3x)

7 0
3 years ago
The one-time fling! Have you ever purchased an article of clothing (dress, sports jacket, etc.), worn the item once to a party,
rjkz [21]

Answer:

a)  0.2725

b)  0.7275

c)  0.8948

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a binomial distribution probability problem. The formula is:

P(x)=\frac{n!}{(n-x)!x!}p^{x}q^{n-x}

Where

n is the number of trials [here we are taking 8 person, so n = 8]

x is what we are looking for [in the problem]

p is the probability of success [ 15%, so p = 0.15

q is the probability of failure [q = 1-p = 0.85]

Now,

a)

We are looking for "no one" did fling, so x = 0

Let's put into formula and find out the probability:

P(x=0)=\frac{8!}{(8-0)!0!}(0.15)^{0}(0.85)^{8}\\P(x=0)=0.2725

So, the probability that no one has done a one-time fling is 0.2725

b)

Atleast 1 person means P(x ≥ 1).

This can be found by:

P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - P(x=0) = 1 - 0.2725 = 0.7275

THus, Probability that at least one person has done a one-time fling is 0.7275

c)

No more than 2 people means P (x≤2).

This is essentially

P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2)

P ( x = 0 ) is found in part (a), which is 0.2725

P (x = 1 ) and P(x=2) can be found using formula:

P(x=1)=\frac{8!}{(8-1)!1!}(0.15)^{1}(0.85)^{7}\\P(x=1)=0.3847

and

P(x=2)=\frac{8!}{(8-2)!2!}(0.15)^{2}(0.85)^{6}\\P(x=2)=0.2376

Thus,

P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2) = 0.2725 + 0.3847 + 0.2376 = 0.8948

8 0
3 years ago
The graph shows the distance, y, in miles, of a moving motorboat from an island for a certain amount of time, x, in hours:
Mila [183]
(0,15)(1,45)
slope = (45 - 15) / ( 1 - 0) = 30 mph
7 0
3 years ago
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