Answer:
1. 0.8 cm
2. 1.6 cm
Step-by-step explanation:
1.
The scale for 2nd map is 1 cm to 50 km, that means "1 cm on map" is "50 km in real life".
We already know distance from Cleveland to Cincinnati is 40 km, which is less than 50, so we know the distance on map would be less than 1 cm.
So we set up ratio and figure out (let x be distance on map from Cleveland to Cincinnati):
Hene, 0.8 centimeters would be the distance in 2nd map
2.
A scale of 1:50 means 1 cm equal 50 cm
So, 0.8m would be
0.8 * 100 = 80 cm
Hence, 80 cm would be represented by 80/50 on the map, that is:
That is 1.6 centimeters
30% of 50,400 = 30240.
Therefore the percentage loss is 30% over the course of 3 years.
Answer:
Let's define the cost of the cheaper game as X, and the cost of the pricer game as Y.
The total cost of both games is:
X + Y
We know that both games cost just above AED 80
Then:
X + Y > AED 80
From this, we want to prove that at least one of the games costed more than AED 40.
Now let's play with the possible prices of X, there are two possible cases:
X is larger than AED 40
X is equal to or smaller than AED 40.
If X is more than AED 40, then we have a game that costed more than AED 40.
If X is less than or equal to AED 40, then:
X ≥ AED 40
Now let's take the maximum value of X in this scenario, this is:
X = AED 40
Replacing this in the first inequality, we get:
X + Y > AED 80
Replacing the value of X we get:
AED 40 + Y > AED 80
Y > AED 80 - AED 40
Y > AED 40
So when X is equal or smaller than AED 40, the value of Y is larger than AED 40.
So we proven that in all the possible cases, at least one of the two games costs more than AED 40.
Answer:
x = 
Is the correct answer
Step-by-step explanation:
Move all terms that don't contain x to the right side and solve.
In pic
(Credit:Symbolab)
(Hope this helps can I please have brainlist (crown) ☺️)
