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user100 [1]
3 years ago
7

If 1ninch represents 22 miles on a map then how many miles will represent 2240 miles

Mathematics
2 answers:
Yanka [14]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

101.8181...

Step-by-step explanation:

I divided heres how.

1 inch equals 22 miles

2240 miles

2240/22=101.8181...

Hope this helps you.

vitfil [10]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

you have to divide

You might be interested in
What is the area of a sector with a central angle of 8 π/11 radians and a radius of 7.2 ft? use 3.14 for π and round your final
coldgirl [10]

Answer:

59.19 ft^2

Step-by-step explanation:

step 1

Find the area of the circle

The area of the circle is equal to

A=\pi r^{2}

we have

r=7.2\ ft

\pi =3.14

substitute

A=(3.14)(7.2)^{2}

A=162.78\ ft^2

step 2

we know that

The area of a circle subtends a central angle of 2π radians

so

using proportion

Find out the area of a sector with a central angle of 8 π/11 radians

\frac{162.78}{2\pi }\frac{ft^2}{rad} =\frac{x}{(8\pi/11)}\frac{ft^2}{rad} \\\\x=162.78(8/11)/2\\\\x=59.19\ ft^2

7 0
3 years ago
Write an equation for the nth term of the arithmetic sequence. Then find a50.
julia-pushkina [17]

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the sequence above is an arithmetic sequence

For an nth term in an arithmetic sequence

A(n) = a + ( n - 1)d

where a is the first term

n is the number of terms

d is the common difference

From the question

a = 1/3

d = 1/2 - 1/3 = 1/6 or 2/3 - 1/2 = 1/6

Substitute the values into the above formula

That's

<h3>A(n) =  \frac{1}{3}  + (n - 1) \frac{1}{6}  \\  =  \frac{1}{ 3}  -  \frac{1}{6}   +  \frac{1}{6} n</h3>

So the nth term of the sequence is

<h3>A(n) =  \frac{1}{6}  +  \frac{1}{6}n</h3>

For a50 since we are finding the 50th term

n = 50

So we have

<h3>A(50) =  \frac{1}{6}  +  \frac{1}{6} (50) \\  =  \frac{1}{6}  +  \frac{25}{3}</h3>

We have the final answer as

<h3>A(50) =  \frac{17}{2}</h3>

Hope this helps you

4 0
3 years ago
Based on the number of voids, a ferrite slab is classified as either high, medium, or low. Historically, 5% of the slabs are cla
AnnyKZ [126]

Answer:

(a) Name: Multinomial distribution

Parameters: p_1 = 5\%   p_2 = 85\%   p_3 = 10\%  n = 20

(b) Range: \{(x,y,z)| x + y + z=20\}

(c) Name: Binomial distribution

Parameters: p_1 = 5\%      n = 20

(d)\ E(x) = 1   Var(x) = 0.95

(e)\ P(X = 1, Y = 17, Z = 3) = 0

(f)\ P(X \le 1, Y = 17, Z = 3) =0.07195

(g)\ P(X \le 1) = 0.7359

(h)\ E(Y) = 17

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

p_1 = 5\%

p_2 = 85\%

p_3 = 10\%

n = 20

X \to High Slabs

Y \to Medium Slabs

Z \to Low Slabs

Solving (a): Names and values of joint pdf of X, Y and Z

Given that:

X \to Number of voids considered as high slabs

Y \to Number of voids considered as medium slabs

Z \to Number of voids considered as low slabs

Since the variables are more than 2 (2 means binomial), then the name is multinomial distribution

The parameters are:

p_1 = 5\%   p_2 = 85\%   p_3 = 10\%  n = 20

And the mass function is:

f_{XYZ} = P(X = x; Y = y; Z = z) = \frac{n!}{x!y!z!} * p_1^xp_2^yp_3^z

Solving (b): The range of the joint pdf of X, Y and Z

Given that:

n = 20

The number of voids (x, y and z) cannot be negative and they must be integers; So:

x + y + z = n

x + y + z = 20

Hence, the range is:

\{(x,y,z)| x + y + z=20\}

Solving (c): Names and values of marginal pdf of X

We have the following parameters attributed to X:

p_1 = 5\% and n = 20

Hence, the name is: Binomial distribution

Solving (d): E(x) and Var(x)

In (c), we have:

p_1 = 5\% and n = 20

E(x) = p_1* n

E(x) = 5\% * 20

E(x) = 1

Var(x) = E(x) * (1 - p_1)

Var(x) = 1 * (1 - 5\%)

Var(x) = 1 * 0.95

Var(x) = 0.95

(e)\ P(X = 1, Y = 17, Z = 3)

In (b), we have: x + y + z = 20

However, the given values of x in this question implies that:

x + y + z = 1 + 17 + 3

x + y + z = 21

Hence:

P(X = 1, Y = 17, Z = 3) = 0

(f)\ P{X \le 1, Y = 17, Z = 3)

This question implies that:

P(X \le 1, Y = 17, Z = 3) =P(X = 0, Y = 17, Z = 3) + P(X = 1, Y = 17, Z = 3)

Because

0, 1 \le 1 --- for x

In (e), we have:

P(X = 1, Y = 17, Z = 3) = 0

So:

P(X \le 1, Y = 17, Z = 3) =P(X = 0, Y = 17, Z = 3) +0

P(X \le 1, Y = 17, Z = 3) =P(X = 0, Y = 17, Z = 3)

In (a), we have:

f_{XYZ} = P(X = x; Y = y; Z = z) = \frac{n!}{x!y!z!} * p_1^xp_2^yp_3^z

So:

P(X=0; Y=17; Z = 3) = \frac{20!}{0! * 17! * 3!} * (5\%)^0 * (85\%)^{17} * (10\%)^{3}

P(X=0; Y=17; Z = 3) = \frac{20!}{1 * 17! * 3!} * 1 * (85\%)^{17} * (10\%)^{3}

P(X=0; Y=17; Z = 3) = \frac{20!}{17! * 3!} * (85\%)^{17} * (10\%)^{3}

Expand

P(X=0; Y=17; Z = 3) = \frac{20*19*18*17!}{17! * 3*2*1} * (85\%)^{17} * (10\%)^{3}

P(X=0; Y=17; Z = 3) = \frac{20*19*18}{6} * (85\%)^{17} * (10\%)^{3}

P(X=0; Y=17; Z = 3) = 20*19*3 * (85\%)^{17} * (10\%)^{3}

Using a calculator, we have:

P(X=0; Y=17; Z = 3) = 0.07195

So:

P(X \le 1, Y = 17, Z = 3) =P(X = 0, Y = 17, Z = 3)

P(X \le 1, Y = 17, Z = 3) =0.07195

(g)\ P(X \le 1)

This implies that:

P(X \le 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

In (c), we established that X is a binomial distribution with the following parameters:

p_1 = 5\%      n = 20

Such that:

P(X=x) = ^nC_x * p_1^x * (1 - p_1)^{n - x}

So:

P(X=0) = ^{20}C_0 * (5\%)^0 * (1 - 5\%)^{20 - 0}

P(X=0) = ^{20}C_0 * 1 * (1 - 5\%)^{20}

P(X=0) = 1 * 1 * (95\%)^{20}

P(X=0) = 0.3585

P(X=1) = ^{20}C_1 * (5\%)^1 * (1 - 5\%)^{20 - 1}

P(X=1) = 20 * (5\%)* (1 - 5\%)^{19}

P(X=1) = 0.3774

So:

P(X \le 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

P(X \le 1) = 0.3585 + 0.3774

P(X \le 1) = 0.7359

(h)\ E(Y)

Y has the following parameters

p_2 = 85\%  and    n = 20

E(Y) = p_2 * n

E(Y) = 85\% * 20

E(Y) = 17

8 0
3 years ago
What are the factor pairs of 55 and 5? im on my sisters account.
Aleks04 [339]

Answer:

The factor pairs of 55 and 5 are 1,5,11, and 55

Step-by-step explanation:

55 = 1 x 55 or 5 x 11. Factors of 55: 1, 5, 11, 55. Prime factorization: 55 = 5 x 11.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A manufacturing process produces semiconductor chips with a known failure rate of . If a random sample of chips is selected, app
AleksandrR [38]

Answer:

The probability that at least 14 of the chips will be defective is 0.6664.

Step-by-step explanation:

The complete question is:

A manufacturing process produces semiconductor chips with a known failure rate of 5.4%. If a random sample of 300 chips is selected, approximate the probability that at least 14 will be defective. Use the normal approximation to the binomial with a correction for continuity .

Solution:

Let <em>X</em> = number of defective chips.

The probability that a chip is defective is, <em>p</em> = 0.054.

A random sample of <em>n</em> = 300 chips is selected.

A chip is defective or not is independent of the other chips.

The random variable <em>X</em> follows a Binomial distribution with parameters <em>n</em> = 300 and <em>p</em> = 0.054.

But the sample selected is too large.

So a Normal approximation to binomial can be applied to approximate the distribution of X if the following conditions are satisfied:

  1. np ≥ 10
  2. n(1 - p) ≥ 10

Check the conditions as follows:

 np=300\times 0.054=16.2>10\\n(1-p)=300\times (1-0.054)=283.8>10

Thus, a Normal approximation to binomial can be applied.

So,  X\sim N(\mu =16.2,\ \sigma^{2}=15.3252).

Compute the probability that at least 14 of the 300 chips will be defective as follows:

Use continuity correction:

P (X ≥ 14) = P (X > 14 + 0.50)

               = P (X > 14.50)

               =P(\frac{X-\mu}{\sigma}>\frac{14.50-16.20}{\sqrt{15.3252}})

                =P(Z>-0.43)\\=P(Z

*Use a <em>z</em>-table for the probability.

Thus, the probability that at least 14 of the chips will be defective is 0.6664.

5 0
3 years ago
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