The diameter can be obtained by the formula A = pi*r^2
First, multiply 0.50 * 100 to obtain the area of the ball, then simplify and solve for the radius. Doubling the radius would yield the diameter. This is shown below:
Area of the ball = 0.50 * 100 = 50 in^2
<span>A = pi*r^2
</span>50 = (3.14)*r^2
r = 3.99 = approx. 4
diameter = 2r
Diameter = 8 inches.
Among the choices, the correct answer is C. 8.0 in.
Answer:
13
Step-by-step explanation:
Replace the variable x with -2 in the expression.
f (-2) = -3 x -2 -2
Simplify (-3 x -2 -2) + 9
Multiply -3 by -2
6 - 2 + 9
Subtract 2 from 6
4 + 9
add 4 and 9
13.
So it decreases by 11% which means by the next year it's worth 89% of the original price, write 89% like a decimal. then put it to the power of 4 (4 years) and multiply by the original number
.89 ^ 4 * 12250 = 7685.92
Answer: a) 
Step-by-step explanation:
Since we have given that
a.) Find the inverse of f(x) and name it g(x).
Let f(x) = y
So, it becomes
Switching x to y , we get
b) . Use composition to show that f(x) and g(x) are inverses of each other.
Similarly,
so, both are inverses of each other.
c) Draw the graphs of f(x) and g(x) on the same coordinate plane.
As shown below in the graph , Since for inverse function we need an axis of symmetry i.e. y=x
And both f(x) and g(x) are symmetry to y=x.
∴ f(x) and g(x) are inverses of each other.
Answer:
D) 1.9 meters
Step-by-step explanation:
a= -1.6, b=3.3, c=0.2
vertex is (1, 1.9)
