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2 years ago

WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST

Mathematics

2 answers:

padilas [110]2 years ago

8 0

Okay so first do 2x3 which equals 6. then add 6 to 1 and you would get 7. so 7/2 is your answer!!

denominator- bottom half of a fraction ex. in the fraction 5/7 the bottom number (7) is the denominator

numerator- top half of a fraction ex. in 5/7 the top (5) is the numerator

whole number-a number without fractions ex. 7, 29, 18

Alex73 [517]2 years ago

7 0

7/2 is your answer
3x2=6
1+6=7
=7/2

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Can anyone help me with this. please

zvonat [6]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

using pythagoras theorem

a^2+b^2=c^2

7^2+KL^2=25^2

49+KL^2=625

KL^2=625-49

KL= $\sqrt{576$

KL=24

take M as reference angle

using tan rule

tan M=/opposite/adjacent

tan M=KL/ML

tan M=24/7

5 0

2 years ago

The graph of the function showing the path of a soccer ball thrown by a goalie in a video game, f(x) = –0.05x2 + 2.5x + 5.2, is

Tju [1.3M]

Answer:

The correct option is 4.

Step-by-step explanation:

The given function is

$f(x)=-0.05x^2+2.5x+5.2$

Where f(x) is height of the ball and x is the distance.

It is a polynomial function with degree 2. All polynomial functions are defined for all real numbers, therefore the mathematical domain of the function is all real numbers.

$-\infty$

Factorize the given function.

$f(x)=-0.05(x^2-50x-104)$

$f(x)=-0.05(x^2-52x+2x-104)$

$f(x)=-0.05(x(x-52)+2(x-52))$

$f(x) = -0.05 (x - 52) (x + 2)$

Put f(x)=0 to find the x intercepts.

$0 = -0.05 (x - 52) (x + 2)$

Equate each factor equal to 0.

$x=52,-2$

Therefore at x=52 and -2, the graph of f(x) intersects x-axis. Before x=-2 and after x=52 the values of f(x) is negative. Height cannot be negative, therefore reasonable domain is lie between -2 to 52.

Distance cannot be negative, therefore the reasonable domain must be positive.

$0\leq x\leq 52$

Therefore the reasonable domain is $0\leq x\leq 52$ and option 4 is correct.

6 0

2 years ago

Suppose you have two urns with poker chips in them. Urn I contains two red chips and four white chips. Urn II contains three red

Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

Multiple answers

Step-by-step explanation:

The original urns have:

Urn 1 = 2 red + 4 white = 6 chips
Urn 2 = 3 red + 1 white = 4 chips

We take one chip from the first urn, so we have:

The probability of take a red one is : $\frac{1}{3}$ (2 red from 6 chips(2/6=1/2))

For a white one is: $\frac{2}{3}$ (4 white from 6 chips(4/6=(2/3))

Then we put this chip into the second urn:

We have two possible cases:

First if the chip we got from the first urn was white. The urn 2 now has 3 red + 2 whites = 5 chips
Second if the chip we got from the first urn was red. The urn two now has 4 red + 1 white = 5 chips

If we select a chip from the urn two:

In the first case the probability of taking a white one is of: $\frac{2}{5}$ = 40% ( 2 whites of 5 chips)
In the second case the probability of taking a white one is of: $\frac{1}{5}$ = 20% ( 1 whites of 5 chips)

This problem is a dependent event because the final result depends of the first chip we got from the urn 1.

For the fist case we multiply :

$\frac{4}{6}$ x $\frac{2}{5}$ = $\frac{4}{15}$ = 26.66% ( $\frac{4}{6}$ the probability of taking a white chip from the urn 1, $\frac{2}{5}$ the probability of taking a white chip from urn two)

For the second case we multiply:

$\frac{1}{3}$ x $\frac{1}{5}$ = $\frac{1}{30}$ = .06% ( $\frac{1}{3}$ the probability of taking a red chip from the urn 1, $\frac{1}{5}$ the probability of taking a white chip from the urn two)

8 0

3 years ago

A barber cuts 3 people's hair in 35 minutes. Each haircut takes at least 10 minutes, and fhe first haircut takes the most time.

olchik [2.2K]

15 minutes, 10 minutes, 10 minutes? I think so

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

How do I figure this out?

Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

∠UXW = 36°

∠WZX = 66°

∠UWY = 48°

∠XYZ = 42°

Use the Alternate Exterior Angles Theorem. Always remember that a triangles angles add up 180°, so you can subtract the angles you already know in a triangle to figure out the remaining angle.

8 0

2 years ago