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mars1129 [50]
3 years ago
12

A theme park has a ride that is located in a sphere. The ride goes around the widest circle of the sphere which has a circumfere

nce of 558.92 yd. What is the surface area of the sphere?
Mathematics
1 answer:
DENIUS [597]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The surface area of the sphere is = 99426.41 yd^2

Step-by-step explanation:

The area of a sphere can be calculated using this formula:

A=4\pi r^2

However, we have a little problem: we do not have our radius yet to utilize in the formula above.

We can get our radius from the circumference of the circle which has been given to us.

circumference = 2 \times \pi \times r

r = \frac{circumference}{2 \pi} = \frac{558.92yd}{2\pi} = 88.95yd

We now have our radius. we can input it into equation 1 above

The Surface area of sphere = 4 \times \pi \times 88/95^2 =  99426.41yd^2

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How many times does 28 go in to 45
taurus [48]

Answer:

<em>About 1.61 times </em>

Step-by-step explanation:

45/28≈1.61 times

So the answer is 1.61 Times

<em>Hope I Helped</em>

4 0
3 years ago
Explain how you can use strategy guess check and revise to solve problems that involve a given area when the relationship betwee
Aleksandr-060686 [28]
You can try finding numbers that are close to what you think you can use for exaple lets say we want to find the answer to 54x34 you could multiply 50x30 to get an estimated answer
3 0
3 years ago
Many utility companies promote energy conservation by offering discount rates to consumers who keep their energy usage below cer
aleksley [76]

Answer:

a. 0.1681 = 16.81% probability that all five qualify for the favorable rate.

b. 0.5283 = 52.83% probability that at least four qualify for the favorable rates

Step-by-step explanation:

For each Puerto Rico resident, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they qualify for discounted rates, or they do not. The probability of a person in the sample qualifying for discounted rates is independent of any other person in the sample. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

70% of the island residents of Puerto Rico have reduced their electricity usage sufficiently to qualify for discounted rates.

This means that p = 0.7

Five residential subscribers are randomly selected from San Juan, Puerto Rico

This means that n = 5

a. All five qualify for the favorable rate

This is P(X = 5). So

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 5) = C_{5,5}.(0.7)^{5}.(0.3)^{0} = 0.1681

0.1681 = 16.81% probability that all five qualify for the favorable rate.

b. At least four qualify for the favorable rates

This is

P(X \geq 4) = P(X = 4) + P(X = 5)

So

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 4) = C_{5,4}.(0.7)^{4}.(0.3)^{1} = 0.3602

P(X = 5) = C_{5,5}.(0.7)^{5}.(0.3)^{0} = 0.1681

P(X \geq 4) = P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) = 0.3602 + 0.1681 = 0.5283

0.5283 = 52.83% probability that at least four qualify for the favorable rates

5 0
3 years ago
A die is rolled 2 times. What is the probability of getting a 2 on the first roll and a 5 on the second roll?
lisov135 [29]

Answer:

1/36

Step-by-step explanation:

the chance of rolling a 2 on a 6-sided die is 1/6 and rolling a 5 on a 6-sided is also 1/6.

So, 1/6 * 1/6 = 1/36

Hope this is helpful

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Use the rules of exponents to evaluate or simplify. Write without negative exponents. 1/4^-1/2 = ___ a0
Nastasia [14]

For this case we have, by definition:


a^{-b} =\frac{1}{a ^ b}

So, we have:


\frac{1}{4}^{-\frac{1}{2}}=\frac{1}{(\frac{1}{4})^{\frac{1}{2}}}

On the other hand we have that by definition:


a^{\frac{1}{2}}=\sqrt{a}

Thus, the expression can be written as:


\frac{1}{\sqrt {\frac{1}{4}}} =

\frac{1}{\frac{1}{\sqrt{4}}}

\frac{1}{\frac{1}{2}}

\frac{1*2}{1*1}=2

So, we have:


\frac{1}{4}^{-\frac{1}{2}}= 2

Answer:


\frac{1}{4}^{-\frac{1}{2}}= 2


4 0
3 years ago
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