Give more detail please this makes zero sense
Answer:
it would be 2.33 I divided it I hope I'm right :)
Answer:
Option C - 420
Step-by-step explanation:
Given : Objective function, P, with the given constraints

Constraints,


To find : What is the maximum value
Solution :
First we plot the graph through the given constrains.
As they all move towards the origin the common region of the equations is given by the points (0,0), (0,12), (2,10), (4,0)
Refer the attached figure.
So, we put all the points in P to, get maximum value.






Therefore, The value is maximum 420 at (0,12)
So, Option C is correct.
Answer:
a)
b) ![P(X> 2)=1-P(X\leq 2)=1-[0.0211+0.0995+0.211]=0.668](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%3E%202%29%3D1-P%28X%5Cleq%202%29%3D1-%5B0.0211%2B0.0995%2B0.211%5D%3D0.668)
c)
Step-by-step explanation:
1) Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
2) Solution to the problem
Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
Part a
Part b
![P(X> 2)=1-P(X\leq 2)=1-[P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%3E%202%29%3D1-P%28X%5Cleq%202%29%3D1-%5BP%28X%3D0%29%2BP%28X%3D1%29%2BP%28X%3D2%29%5D)
![P(X> 2)=1-P(X\leq 2)=1-[0.0211+0.0995+0.211]=0.668](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%3E%202%29%3D1-P%28X%5Cleq%202%29%3D1-%5B0.0211%2B0.0995%2B0.211%5D%3D0.668)
Part c
The answer is 40 EXPLANATION: 6% of 30 is 20%. 20% of 200 is 40