Q minus four and p equals one third of q
Converting decimals:
Write down the decimal divided by 1, like this: decimal 1.
Multiply both top and bottom by 10 for every number after the decimal point. ...
Simplify (or reduce) the fraction.
They both are similar because you can divide by one? not sure on this part.
Answer:
B) 2
Step-by-step explanation:
Given expression,
48 ÷ ((2 + 6) × 2) − 1
In simplification we follows the following order,
B = Bracket
O = Of
D = Division
M = Multiplication
A = Addition,
S = Subtraction,
Thus, steps of solving the given expression by following BODMAS are as follow,
![\frac{48}{(2 + 6) \times 2}-1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B48%7D%7B%282%20%2B%206%29%20%5Ctimes%202%7D-1)
![=\frac{48}{8\times 2}-1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%3D%5Cfrac%7B48%7D%7B8%5Ctimes%202%7D-1)
![=\frac{48}{16}-1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%3D%5Cfrac%7B48%7D%7B16%7D-1)
![=3-1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%3D3-1)
![=2](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%3D2)
Hence, OPTION B is correct.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
the first expression