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3 years ago

Substitute 3 for x and evaluate the expression below.

Mathematics

1 answer:

lana66690 [7]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:4

Step-by-step explanation:3-8=-5. But because it is in absolute value, it would be positive 5. And then 5-1=4.

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Use the substitution method to solve the system of equations. y = -8x 4x - y = 3 O AG-2 O B. (6-1 oc c. (6.-4 D. G-4

Triss [41]

<h2>Known : </h2>

y = -8x

4x - y = 3

<h2>Asked: </h2>

Use the substitution method to solve the system of equations ?

<h2>Answered:</h2>

<h3>Substitution y</h3>

4x - y = 3

4x - (-8x) = 3

4x + 8x = 3

12x = 3

x = 3/12

x = 1/4

<h3>Substitution x</h3>

4x - y = 3

4(1/4) - y = 3

4/4 - y = 3

1 - y = 3

-y = 3 - 1

-y = 2

y = -2

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Which algebraic rule describes the transformation?

Olegator [25]

Answer:

C) (x,y) -> (-x,-y)

Step-by-step explanation:

This is the answer because the graph was flipped. If you look a the x point, it is in the same number, but the number is negative, and this is the same for the y point. hope this helps

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3 years ago

Convertir 0.16 en fracción

MrRa [10]

Answer:

4/25 en forma de fracción

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

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11111nata11111 [884]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

nventing is a difficult way to make money. Only 5% of new patents earn a substantial profit. A certain city has just had30 indep

Arlecino [84]

Answer:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146$

$P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=30, p=0.05)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Solution to the problem

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X \geq 2)$

And we can use the complement rule and we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probabilities using the probability mass function and we got:

$P(X=0) = (30C0) (0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{30-0} =0.2146$

$P(X=1) = (30C1) (0.05)^1 (1-0.05)^{30-1} = 0.3389$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1-P(X$

3 0

3 years ago