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kodGreya [7K]
3 years ago
12

Simplify the following expressions below using the distributive property and by combining like terms.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Goryan [66]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

your answers would be : -2+2x+3x-4+3

-3y-2+3y-4

2+3+2y+3x

Step-by-step explanation:

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Cheryl's softball batting average is 0.340, and Karin's is 0.304. Karin say they have the average. What error did she make.
Veronika [31]
Karin's average is smaller than Cheryl's
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3 years ago
On Friday, Logan asked 50 randomly selected shoppers if they liked carrot cake. The number of shoppers who responded “yes” was 3
bija089 [108]

Answer:

the answer is gay

Step-by-step explanation:

I Logan is gay cause he asked people who liked carrots and carrots are gay

3 0
3 years ago
Refer to the Trowbridge Manufacturing example in Problem 2-35. The quality control inspection proce- dure is to select 6 items,
Ivanshal [37]

Answer:

77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each item, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of an item being defective is independent of other items. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

The true proportion of defects is 0.15

This means that p = 0.15

Sample of 6:

This means that n = 6

What is the probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6?

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{6,0}.(0.15)^{0}.(0.85)^{6} = 0.3771

P(X = 1) = C_{6,1}.(0.15)^{1}.(0.85)^{5} = 0.3993

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.3771 + 0.3993 = 0.7764

77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.

5 0
3 years ago
Helpppppppppppppppppp​
Marianna [84]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

3/8 if you change 1/4 to 8ths you get 2/8. so if you add 1 3/8 + 2/8 you get 1 5/8 so you only need 3/8 to get to 2 quarts.

3 0
3 years ago
38 is 8 percent, of what number?
adoni [48]

Answer:

475

Step-by-step explanation:

Is means equals.  We need to change 8% to a decimal.  8% = .08.  Of means multiply.  X is the unknown number.

38 = .08 * x

Divide each side by .08

38/.08 = .08x /.08

475 = x

The unknown number is 475

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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