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jenyasd209 [6]
2 years ago
5

When using the first-in, first-out (FIFO) method of process costing, equivalent units for work done during this period is equal

to the number of units: In work-in-process at the beginning of the period times the percent of work necessary to complete the items, plus the number of units started and completed during the period, plus the number of units remaining in work-in-process at the end of the period times the percent of work done during the period. Started into process during the period, plus the number of units in work-in-process at the beginning of the period. In work-in-process at the beginning of the period, plus the number of units started during the period, plus the number of units remaining in work-in-process at the end of the period times the percent of work necessary to complete the items. Transferred out during the period, plus the number of units remaining in work-in-process at the end of the period times the percent of work necessary to complete the items.
Business
1 answer:
yuradex [85]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

In work-in-process at the beginning of the period times the percent of work necessary to complete the items, plus the number of units started and completed during the period, plus the number of units remaining in work-in-process at the end of the period times the percent of work done during the period

Explanation:

Under the FIFO following are the formulas needed for determining the equivalent unit of production. Any of the following formula should be used for calculated the same

(i) Equivalent Units of Production is

=  finish opening inventory units + units started & completed + closing work in process inventory  units

(ii) Equivalent Units of Production is

= opening inventory × (100% - Completion percentage of opening inventory) + Units started & completed + Closing work in process inventory × Completion percentage

(iii) Equivalent units of production is

= transferred out units + closing work in process inventory units − opening inventory units

Hence, the first option is correct

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The estimated expense for accounts that may not be collected is referred to as:
sashaice [31]

Answer: a bad debt expense

Explanation:

The estimated expense for accounts that may not be collected is referred to as. bad debt expense. Joyce Corp uses the percentage-of-receivables method to account for bad debt expense. Joyce determines that a customer account of $20,000 should be written off as uncollectible

3 0
2 years ago
Use your knowledge of balance sheets, what are the total liabilities and retained earnings in the text below, respectively? ASSE
Vera_Pavlovna [14]

Answer:

B) 280,000; 200,000

Explanation:

Assets = Liabilities + Shareholder Equity

Assets:

Cash                              $50,000

Accounts receivable    $80,000

Inventory                     $100,000

Gross P&E                   $730,000

<u>depreciation               ($130,000)</u>

total                          = $830,000

Liabilities:

Accounts payable         $12,000

Notes payable              $50,000

<u>Long-term debt           $218,000 </u>

total                          = $280,000

Equity = $830,000 - $280,000 = $550,000

Common stock            $100,000

Add. paid-in capital    $250,000

Retained earnings = $550,000 - $100,000 (common stock) - $250,000 (APIC) = $200,000

3 0
3 years ago
Consider the following statement: ''Real GDP is currently $17.7 trillion, and potential real GDP is $17.4 trillion. If Congress
Elena L [17]

Answer:

C. more than $300 billion.

Explanation:

As it is given that

Decrease in government purchase by $300 billion

Tax increased by $300 billion

Based on this we can interpret that if there is a more decrease in gross domestic product which leads to the decrease in government expenditure or the government tax is increased is because of multiplier effect as it shows the positive relationship between the spending and the final income

Therefore, the third option is correct

Hence, the above statement is false

6 0
3 years ago
A bear market is distinguished by ________.
kiruha [24]
<span>A bear market is distinguished by a declining stock market and decreasing investor confidence. A bear market is when security prices fall and the stock market starts to take a downward turn. The market tries to become self-sustaining so investors start to sell off their stocks and securities. </span>
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The stock of Big Joe's has a beta of 1.64 and an expected return of 13.30 percent. The risk-free rate of return is 5.8 percent.
larisa86 [58]

Answer:

expected return on market = 0.10373 or 10.373%

Explanation:

Using the CAPM, we can calculate the required/expected rate of return on a stock. This is the minimum return required by the investors to invest in a stock based on its systematic risk, the market's risk premium and the risk free rate.  

The formula for required rate of return under CAPM is,

r = rRF + Beta * rpM

Where,

  • rRF is the risk free rate
  • rpM is the market risk premium

We will first calculate the market risk premium using the required rate of return for stock, beta and risk free rate and plugging these values in the formula above.

0.1330 = 0.058 + 1.64 * rpM

0.1330 - 0.058 = 1.64 *rpM

0.075 = 1.64 * rpM

rpM = 0.075 / 1.64

rpM = 0.04573 or 4.573%

As we know that the beta for market is always equal to 1, we can calculate the rate of return for market as,

expected return on market = 0.058 + 1 * 0.04573

expected return on market = 0.10373 or 10.373%

7 0
3 years ago
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