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uysha [10]
3 years ago
6

The Northern Division of Southwest Clothing Inc. forecasts (has budgeted) the following income statement for the upcoming year:

Sales $850,000 Variable Costs (520,000) Contribution Margin 330,000 Fixed Costs (480,000) Operating loss ($150,000) Unfortunately, every other division in the company is also expecting an operating loss for the coming year. The company's management is considering shutting down the Northern Division and has determined that $350,000 of the $480,000 Fixed Costs shown would be eliminated if that happens. If the Northern Division is shutdown, what is the change (impact) in Southwest's forecast operating results
Business
1 answer:
Alex3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Operating loss will decrease by $20,000

Explanation:

Operating loss from normal business activities and if the division is not shut down = $150,000.

Operating loss if division is shut down by the management = $130,000 ($480,000 - $350,000) because the management has determined that $350,000 of the $480,000 Fixed Costs shown would be eliminated if that happens.

So, if the Northern Division is shutdown, the Operating loss will decrease by $20,000 (From $150,000 to $130,000)

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Productivity is difficult to measure because precise units of measure are available, quality is consistent, and exogenous variab
podryga [215]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

All of the statements being made are False. Productivity is measured by stats. For example, in any given month a certain number of products are produced by a fixed number of employees, the next month the same value is calculated and compared with the previous month. This lets you know if productivity is increasing or decreasing. The quality of anything depends on the time and effort being implemented in making something, if this changes then so does the quality. Exogenous variables are simply variables that are not affected by other variables in a given environment, this does not mean that they cannot change. Even though they are independent they can still change. For example, the weather is an exogenous variable but it can still change from Raining to Sunny.

6 0
3 years ago
Tuition of $2200 is due when the spring term begins, in What amount should a student deposit today, at to have enough to pay tui
Angelina_Jolie [31]

Answer:

Since Interest Rate and Period is not given; we would assume the spring term begins in 4 months and

Explanation:

First we will require to use the compound interest formula.

It is not mentioned the compounding period in the question. However, many of the bank accounts today offer monthly compounding, and this will be used as the basis.

i=interest rate=7.62% p.a => 7.62/12=0.635% per month

FV=PV(1+i)^n

FV=future value = 2200

PV=present value, to be found

i=interest rate per compounding period (month)=0.00635

n=number of periods=4

2200=PV(1+0.00635)^4

PV=2200/(1.00635^4)

PV=$2144.99

In case interest is not compounded, we could apply the simple interest formula:

FV=PV(1+ni)

PV=2200/(1+4*0.00635)

PV=$2145.504

5 0
3 years ago
Revocation of an offer is valid once it is __________________.
Amiraneli [1.4K]

Revocation of an offer is valid once it is <u>B. received</u> by the offeror (the person making the offer), meaning that it has been communicated to the other party by the offeree.

<h3>What is the revocation of an offer?</h3>

The revocation of an offer is the nullification or canceling of an offer by the offeree.  It becomes effective when the offeree communicates to the offeror before acceptance.

Once the revocation has been communicated, the offer is no longer considered valid and cannot legally be accepted. The implication is that revocation goes into effect immediately it has been communicated to the relevant party.

Thus, revocation of an offer is valid once it is <u>B. received</u> by the offeror.

Learn more about offer revocations at brainly.com/question/26532053

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An individual has $2000 in physical assets, and $600 in cash initially. This person faces the following loss distribution to the
RUDIKE [14]

Answer with Explanation:

Probability   Expected Loss           Loss Forecast

0.5                          0                                0

0.1                        200                              20

0.2                       400                              80

0.1                       1000                             100

0.1                       2000                            200

1.00                     Total                             400

Now,

A. Final Wealth with no Insurance = Physical Assets of the person + Cash Assets - Total Loss Forecast

By putting values, we have:

Final Wealth with no Insurance = $2,000 + $600 - $400 = $2,200

B. For Full insurance, we will not consider expected loss because we will receive Insurance Premium instead:

Final Wealth with Full Insurance = Physical Assets + Cash Assets - Insurance Premium

By putting values, we have:

Final Wealth with Full Insurance = $2,000 + $600 - $600 = $2,000

C. Final Wealth with Partial Insurance and $200 deductibles = Physical Assets + Cash Assets - Insurance Premium For Partial Coverage - Deductible

By putting values, we have:

Final Wealth with Partial Insurance and $200 deductibles = $2,000 + $600 - $450  - $200 = $1,950

D. Final Wealth with 75% Co-insurance = Physical Assets + Cash Assets - Insurance Premium - Co-payment

By putting values, we have:

Final Wealth with 75% Co-Insurance = $2,000 + $600 - $450 - (75% * $400)

= $1,850

E. Final Wealth with Partial Insurance and $1,000 Upper Limit = Physical Assets + Cash Assets - Insurance Premium - Maximum Loss Expected

By putting values, we have:

= $2,000 + $600 - $450 - (Probability 0.1 * $2,000) = $1950

From the above, we can say that the best option here in descending order is as under:

1.  A. Final Wealth with no Insurance

2.  B. With Full insurance

3.  C. Final Wealth with Partial Insurance and $200 deductibles & E. Final Wealth with Partial Insurance and $1,000 Upper Limit

4.  E. Final Wealth with Partial Insurance and $1,000 Upper Limit

5 0
3 years ago
You can actually give yourself a raise by increasing the flow of money into your own account and decreasing the money flowing ou
Nookie1986 [14]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

If more money is coming into your account as compared to going out then you are in "positive cash flow". This means that you are in a situation where you can easily pay your bills and also save some money which is good.

If less money is coming into your account as compared to going out then you are in "negative cash flow". This means that you are in a situation where it is very diificult for you to cover your bills and you need more money to survive.

To conclude, the statement is true that you can give yourself a raise by increasing the flow of money into your account and decreasing the out flow.

4 0
3 years ago
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