Answer:
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Answer:
Arbitrage opportunity may exists as the ZCBs selling at different price at same time due to change in their YTM .
The PV of 100 face value zcb with different ytm are different , in this case.
for one year maturity with face value 100 current price = fv/ pv at 8% = 92.59
for Two year maturity with face value 100 current price = fv / Pv at 9% for two years = 84.167 , if the bond holder sell the bond after 1 year only, the price = 91.74 .
a) The arbitrage opportunity exist with buy two bond with face value 100 with maturity of 1 year and face value 110 with maturity of 2 years.
b) profit 0.01 , as difference between PV of both bond at their YTM rate.
Answer:
"Capital rationing" would be the appropriate answer.
Explanation:
- Capital rationing is a systematic process for allocating remaining cash through various alternative investments, thus growing the bottom line of a financial institution.
- It consists of calculating profitability economic indicators across all projects as well as choosing the best ventures which result in the highest present value especially when associated.
Answer:
The correct answer is b. an implied contract.
Explanation:
The theory of implicit contracts refers to the fact that the relationship between employers and workers is governed, in addition to the "explicit" legal contracts signed between the two, by a multitude of tacit commitments established during the understanding between the two parties. Implied contracts are unwritten agreements and informal rules that companies have with their workers, and that, in many cases, are justified in the commitment to wage stability. In this theory, companies set wages within a broad and long-term strategy or stability of the employment relationship.
