Answer:
a) It can be used because np and n(1-p) are both greater than 5.
Step-by-step explanation:
Binomial distribution and approximation to the normal:
The binomial distribution has two parameters:
n, which is the number of trials.
p, which is the probability of a success on a single trial.
If np and n(1-p) are both greater than 5, the normal approximation to the binomial can appropriately be used.
In this question:
So, lets verify the conditions:
np = 201*0.45 = 90.45 > 5
n(1-p) = 201*(1-0.45) = 201*0.55 = 110.55 > 5
Since both np and n(1-p) are greater than 5, the approximation can be used.
Answer:
graph attached
Step-by-step explanation:
27x - 15y = 1350
15y = 27x -1350
y = 27/15 x - 1350/15
y = 9/5 x - 90
y = mx + b y intercept (b) = -90
y=0 x = 90 * 5/9 = 50 x intercept
The theorical probability is 1/4, because there are 4 possible outcome, and they are equally likely to be picked (the sectors have the same area)
The experimental probability is 3/20, becuase the red sector was picked 3 times in 20 trials.
Answer:
A). X is 80 degrees
Step-by-step explanation:
B). We know this because AD and EH are congruent. Since B and F are also congruent, then x and the angle above B must be congruent. So, the angle an=bove B is 80 degress, which makes line AD 180 degrees, or a straight line. that must mean that x is 80 degrees as well.
I hope this works. Good luck!
10 would be 50% so 1 is 5% 5x8 =40
Her experimental probability is 40%
