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elena-s [515]
2 years ago
15

What is known as the accounting equation?

Business
1 answer:
Ksenya-84 [330]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Also known as the balance sheet equation, the accounting equation formula is Assets = Liabilities + Equity. ... In other words, all uses of capital (assets) are equal to all sources of capital (debt: liabilities and equity).

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Yi Company began operations on January 1, 2013. During 2013, the company engaged in the following cash transactions: 1) issued s
Andreyy89

Answer:

$11,000

Explanation:

Data provided

Provided consulting services = $50,000

Paid rent expenses = $12,000

Paid employee salaries = $27,000

The calculation of Yi's net cash flow from operating activities is given below:-

Yi's net cash flow from operating activities = Provided consulting services - Paid rent expenses - Paid employee salaries

= $50,000 - $12,000 - $27,000

= $11,000

Sp, for computing the Yi's net cash flow from operating activities we simply applied the above formula.

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Exercise 13-02 The following are selected 2020 transactions of Sandhill Corporation.
Lorico [155]

Explanation:

a. The journal entries are as follows:

1. Purchase A/c Dr $52,000

     To Account payable A/c $52,000

(Being the purchase of inventory is recorded)

2. Account payable A/c $52,000

           To Notes payable A/c

(Being the payment is done via note payable)

3. Cash A/c Dr $52,000

Discount on Note payable A/c Dr $4,400

       To Note payable A/c $56,400

(Being the borrowed amount is recorded)

b.

Interest expense A/c Dr $1,040

      To Interest payable A/c $1,040

(Being the interest expense is recorded)

The computation is shown below:

= $52,000 × 8% × 3 months ÷ 12 months

= $1,040

Interest expense A/c Dr $1,040      ($4,160 × 3 months ÷ 12 months)

     To Discount on notes payable A/c $1,040

(Being the interest expense is recorded)

c. Now the total net liability is

i. For the interest-bearing note

= Note payable + interest payable

= $52,000 + $1,040

= $53,040

ii. For zero-interest-bearing note

= $56,400 - $3,120      ($4,160 - 1,040)

= $53,280

5 0
2 years ago
Given the following information about the closed economy of Brittania, what is the level of investment spending and private savi
arlik [135]

Answer:

$270 million; $220 million; $50 million

Explanation:

Given that,

GDP = $ 1260.00 million

T = $ 320.00 million

C = $ 720.00 million

G = $ 270.00

Formula for calculating GDP by expenditure method is as follows:

GDP = Consumption + Investment spending + Government spending

$1,260 = $720 + Investment spending + $270

$1,260 = $990 + Investment spending

$1,260 - $990 = Investment spending

$270 million = Investment spending

Private savings refers to the savings of the households. It is calculated by  subtracting the taxes and consumption spending from the income level.

Private savings:

= GDP - Taxes - Consumption spending

= $1,260 - $320 - $720

= $220 million

Public savings refers to the savings done by the government. Public savings is calculated by subtracting the government expenditure from the taxes.

Public savings = Taxes - Government spending          

                        = $320 - $270

                        = $50 million

Therefore, a positive public savings indicates that there is a budget surplus.

6 0
2 years ago
True or False. A single working person may claim themselves as a dependent.
slamgirl [31]

Answer: I think it’s false

Explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The environmental protection agency of a county would like to preserve a piece of land as a wilderness area. The current owner h
charle [14.2K]

Answer: The answer is given below

Explanation:

Here , we are going to apply the present value of annuty formula.

a. Social Opportunity cost = $1.1 Million

The Yearly cash flows = $110,000

Time (n) = 20 years

The Discount rate (R) = 4%

Net benefits= Present value of cash inflows - the intial socail opportnity cost

Net benefits= Yearly cash flow × (1 - 1/(1+R)^n) / R - 1100000

Net benefits = 110000 × (1 - 1/1.04^20)/0.04 - (1100000)

= $394936

b. We will use the formula for present value of an annuity with the growth rate in benefits as 2 percent.

Firstly, dg= (0.04 - 0.02)/ (1+0.02)

= 0.01961

PV(benefits) = [($110,000)÷ (1+0.02)][1-(1+dg)-20]/dg]

= $1,770,045

NPV = $1,770,045 - $1,100,000= $670,045

7 0
3 years ago
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