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kati45 [8]
3 years ago
14

A pharmacist receives a shipment of 22 bottles of a drug and has 3 of the bottles tested. If 5 of the 22 bottles are contaminate

d, what is the probability that exactly 1 of the tested bottles is contaminated?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Norma-Jean [14]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

There is a 44.16% probability that exactly 1 of the tested bottles is contaminated.

Step-by-step explanation:

C_{n,x} is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

In this problem, we have that:

Total number of combinations:

C_{22,3} = \frac{22!}{3!(18)!} = 1540

Desired combinations:

It is 1 one 5(contamined) and 2 of 17(non contamined). So:

C_{5,1}*C_{17,2} = 5*17*8 = 680

What is the probability that exactly 1 of the tested bottles is contaminated?

P = \frac{680}{1540} = 0.4416

There is a 44.16% probability that exactly 1 of the tested bottles is contaminated.

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The converted fractions are 3/12 and 5/12 and the sum is 2/3

<h3>How to convert the fractions?</h3>

From the question, the fractions are given as

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Read more about fractions at

brainly.com/question/1622425

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