Answer:
$51,164
Explanation:
The project's terminal cash flow is basically the cash flow of the project's last year.
depreciable value = $80,000 + $6,000 - $23,031 = $62,969
depreciation expense per year = $62,969 / 5 = $12,593.80 per year
net cash flow year 5 = [(savings - depreciation expense) x (1 - tax rate)] + depreciation expense + salvage value + recovery of net working capital = [($28,000 - $12,593.80) x (1 - 35%)] + $12,593.80 + $23,031 + $5,525 = $51,163.83 ≈ $51,164
Answer:
The answer is "Option b".
Explanation:
In this scenario, the second option, which would be the percentage within each transaction that's also interest instead of the full amount, would've been lower if the rate of interest were lower because interest-related transactions would have been higher at lower rates and conversely, as opposed to the main refunds.
Answer:
in folklore, a narrative containing information about actual persons and events. Originating from the tales of eyewitnesses, the traditional account departs from its original factual basis when retold and becomes subject to free poetic interpretation.
Answer: B
Explanation: Cockroaches have a strong oily odor from them.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "C": When both the fair value of a reporting unit and its associated implied goodwill fall below their respective carrying values.
Explanation:
Impairment Loss is the decrease in an asset's net carrying value that exceeds the future undisclosed cash flow it should generate. The net carrying value is an asset's acquisition cost minus depreciation. Impairment occurs when a company sells or abandons an asset that is no longer beneficial.
Thus, <em>a goodwill impairment loss is recognized when the goodwill's net carrying value is below its fair value and the expected cash flow it was to generate.</em>
